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Code d'Examen: A4040-129
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM i 7.1 Administration)
Questions et réponses: 164 Q&As

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NO.1 A company has just purchased a new POWER7 server running IBM i 7.1 to replace an older
system running V5R4M5. Due to a mistake by a programmer on the V5R4 system, data was
accidently deleted. To recover, the administrator backs up the deleted data to virtual tape on the
7.1 server and attempts to restore it on the V5R4 server. The restore on the V5R4 server fails with a
message stating the data was saved from a more recent release of the operating system.
Which option will solve this problem?
A. Save the data to physical media.
B. Set the target release parameter to V5R4M0 when saving the data.
C. ETP the virtual tape image catalog from the 7.1 server using binary mode.
D. Use the target release parameter *RECOVER and the access path parameter set to VSR4MO.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Journaling of a large library is running on SYSTEMA and the journal is system managed.
Remote journaling to
SYSTEMB has been configured. Due to a communications problem between SYSTEMA and SYSTEMB,
remote journaling is not working and cannot be quickly restarted.
Disk utilization on SYSTEMA is increasing rapidly. To reduce disk utilization the administrator tries to
delete journal receivers on SYSTEMA. Attempts fail and the following message displays:
CPF705F: Receiver not replicated to 1 remote journals.
What must the administrator do to delete journal receivers on SYSTEMA?
A. Delete and recreate only the journal, and then delete the receivers.
B. Stop journaling, as this must be ended first, and then delete the receivers.
C. Use the DLTJRNRCV command and change the delete option parameter to ignore target receivers.
D. Use the CHGJRN command to change the Manage Receivers parameter to allow user
management of journal receivers and then delete the receivers.
Answer: C

IBM   A4040-129   certification A4040-129   A4040-129

NO.3 What are the key benefits provided by database journaling?
A. Can send updates concurrently to a second system Can back out incomplete transactions Can
reduce system I/O workload
B. Can reduce application complexity Can back out incomplete transactions Can maintain database
integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
C. Can send updates concurrently to a second system Can increase performance Can maintain
database integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
D. Can send updates concurrently to a second system Can back out incomplete transactions and
commitment control Can maintain database integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
Answer: D

IBM   A4040-129 examen   A4040-129   A4040-129

NO.4 Several IBM i partitions at a customer site provide outdated contact information to IBM when
problems are reported. Which command should be used to correct the contact information?
A. CHGSVCCFG
B. CHGCNTINF
C. SNDSRVRQS *UPD
D. WRKCNTINE, option 2
Answer: D

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NO.5 The threshold limit has been reached for the system ASP on a system running IBM i 7.1 .
There are some disk units configured to a user ASP available. Business continuing policy prevents
the administrator from stopping the system.
How could the system administrator correct the storage problem in the system ASP?
A. Increase the ASP threshold above the currently utilized storage.
B. Concurrently remove available disk units from user ASP using the "Remove units from
configuration" SST option and add them to system ASP .
C. Switch to the backup system using an HA solution and restart the original system to DST. Remove
the available disk units from user ASP and add them to system ASP .
D. Initiate a control panel function 21 to activate DST on the system console for the affected
partition. Use the DST feature to compress the parity stripe to increase available storage.
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator maintains four image catalogs on a host partition that are used by
network-based virtual optical drives. Periodically, images are added or removed from the catalog
and it must be re-exported.
What is the simplest method to update the share and NES export?
A. Create a CL program.
B. Create a REXX program.
C. Create a Qshell script.
D. Run the statements manually as needed.
Answer: B

IBM   A4040-129   certification A4040-129

NO.7 An administrator needs to restore a physical file DATALIB/SMALLFILE from a Save 21 backup
of library DATALIB. DATALIB has several hundred large database files plus other objects.
The administrator has the job log and output from the last full save of DATALIB.
What should the administrator do to restore SMALLFILE in the shortest time?
A. Run the RST command for object "/QSYS.LIB/DATALIB.LIB/SMALLFILE.FILE"
B. Delete SMALLFILE, run RSTLIB specifying *NEW objects, and specify library DATALIB as the
starting library.
C. Run RSTLIB for library DATALIB specifying the position parameter for SMALLFILE in library DATALIB
from the output of the save.
D. Run RSTOBJ for DATALIB/SMALLFILE specifying the position and sequence number for SMALLFILE
in library DATALIB from the output of the save.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A Power 720 currently has its firmware update policy set to Os Managed. Which statement is
correct?
A. Server firmware updates will always be disruptive.
B. IPLing from the A side of any partition will activate the new server firmware.
C. Only the Service partition needs PTEs to be installed for the new server firmware to be
immediately activated.
D. Only the Managing partition needs PTF5 to be installed for the new server firmware to be
temporarily activated.
Answer: B

IBM   A4040-129   A4040-129   certification A4040-129

NO.9 Which statement describes server firmware delivery that uses PTF5 on a POWER7 system?
A. A single IBM i (57703S1) PTF is ordered to update server firmware.
B. The firmware is ordered using the marker PTF ID, such as MHxxxxx, and is installed with normal
IBM i PTE commands.
C. The server firmware PTE (MFxxxxx) is ordered from the connected HMC and is sent to the service
partition for install.
D. The HIPER PTF group is ordered for the Licensed Internal Code (5770999) and the order is flagged
with Include Firmware Update *YES.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Due to an application problem, management has requested the IPL of a partition running IBM i
7.1. The administrator initiates the IPL, and during the restart phase notices the IPL is running in
manual mode even though the HMC partition settings indicate B NORMAL.
Why is the IPL running in manual mode?
A. The PWRDWNSYS command restart parameter is set to *MANUAL.
B. Manual is the default IPL mode when there is a console problem.
C. The QIPLTYPE system value is set to "Attended IPL, Console in debug mode".
D. Manual is the default IPL mode when the previous system end indicator is abnormal.
Answer: C

IBM   A4040-129   certification A4040-129   certification A4040-129   A4040-129   A4040-129

NO.11 Which graphical tool will help identity additional details about activity on the system, to
isolate the root cause of performance problems?
A. PEX
B. iDoctor
C. Performance Monitor
D. Communications Trace
Answer: B

IBM   certification A4040-129   certification A4040-129   A4040-129   A4040-129 examen   A4040-129 examen

NO.12 A batch job runs daily in the QBATCH subsystem with a run priority of 50. The job normally
takes an hour to complete and no other batch jobs run during this time.
The administrator needs to reduce the run time and requests the run priority be lowered to 40.
However1 after the change, run time does not decrease.
What is the likely reason that the run time did not decrease?
A. The run priority applies to only interactive jobs.
B. D82 Symmetric Multiprocessing has not been installed.
C. The run priority represents only the relative importance of the job.
D. The system value QPFRADJ (Performance Adjustment) is set to "No adjustment."
Answer: C

IBM examen   A4040-129   A4040-129   A4040-129 examen   A4040-129

NO.13 A customer is upgrading an HMC to a new release using Recovery DVD5 for the new release
level. Which action must be completed before performing the upgrade from DVD process?
A. Run the 'HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data' to DVD.
B. Run the 'HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data' to HMC disk.
C. Run the 'HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data' to NFS server.
D. Run the 'HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data' to the administrator's PC.
Answer: B

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NO.14 An administrator has been asked to update an IBM i 7.1 system to the most current
Technology Refresh available from IBM. Which method is the most appropriate to achieve the
update?
A. Perform a D-mode IPL using the Technology Group PTF package SF99707.
B. Perform a slip install using the most current 1_Base_01 resave media available.
C. Perform a scratch install using the most current 1_Base_01 resave media available.
D. Perform an install of the Technology Group PTF package SF99707 using the GO PTF menu.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A disaster recovery test is being performed, using backups from a production system. The
backup process is as follows:
Full system save, using GO SAVE Option 21, for weekly backup
SAVCHGOBJ LIB(*ALL) is used for daily library backup, in addition to DLO and IFS saves
The disaster recovery test is at the point where libraries are ready to be restored
Which pair of actions will restore the libraries to the most recent save point, in the minimum
amount of time?
A. Use RSTLIB(*NONSYS) to restore all libraries and object from the SAVE 21 weekly save. For
each daily tape, run a RSTLIB for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ.
B. Use RSTLIB(*NONSYS) to restore all libraries and object from the SAVE 21 weekly save. Then
run a RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the most recent daily tape.
C. Run RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the most recent daily tape.
Then run RSTLIB(*NONSYS) OPTION(*NEW) to restore the remaining libraries and objects from
the SAVE 21 weekly save.
D. For each daily tape, run RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the daily tapes.
Then run RSTOBJ(*NONSYS) OPTION(*NEW) to restore the remaining libraries and objects from
the SAVE 21 weekly save.
Answer: B

IBM   A4040-129   A4040-129

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Code d'Examen: C4090-451
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Midrange Storage Technical Support V3)
Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 The customer is having a problem adding LUNs from a SAN-attached DS5020. The LUNs are
showing up multiple times. The hosts are running Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise.
How can this situation be resolved?
A. Install RDAC for DS5020
B. Check the default HBA settings
C. Install IBM MPIO Device Specific Module (DSM)
D. Install SDDDSM drivers and update HBA firmware
Answer: C

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NO.2 What GUI-based system management tool is used to manage N series storage subsystems and
N
series system objects?
A. OnCommand
B. AutoSupport
C. SnapManager Suite
D. Tivoli Storage Manager
Answer: A

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NO.3 From a file sharing perspective, which of the following is a competitive advantage of the
Storwize
V7000 Unified compared to EMC VNX and NetApp in 7-mode?
A. Multipath failover
B. CIFS and NFS support
C. Deduplication of the data
D. Active/Active engines with shareable namespace
Answer: D

IBM   certification C4090-451   C4090-451   C4090-451   certification C4090-451

NO.4 A customer just purchased a Storwize V7000 and wants to upgrade their warranty. What is the
best standard warranty available for the customer?
A. 9x5 with 4 hour response
B. 24x7 with 4 hour response
C. 24x7 with 2 hour response
D. 24x7 with 1 hour response
Answer: C

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NO.5 A technical specialist has been asked to design a solution to address a video imaging archiving
need. The customer needs to store images on disk for 90 days then keep them on tape for a
period of 7 years. There will be little access to the data once it is written initially, unless it is
needed for legal reasons. There is no need for high performance and the video files are quite large
in size. Initially, there will be 20 TB of data to be archived with an estimated annual growth of 50
percent for the next five years. The customer wants to add the tape system into a 42U rack and
wants to be able to scale the tape system for more cartridge slots and more drives
What solution should the technical specialist recommend to meet these requirements?
A. TS3500 with LTO-5 drives
B. TS3100 with LTO-5 drives
C. TS3310with LTO-5 drives
D. TS3200 with LTO-5 drives
Answer: C

IBM   C4090-451   C4090-451   C4090-451 examen   C4090-451

NO.6 A technical specialist is working with a customer that wants to utilize a Storwize V7000 for
iSCSI
connection in their environment. The technician and the customer are drawing up the connectivity
plan for the new installation.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding connectivity for the Storwize V7000?
A. The management and iSCSI ports must share the same VLAN.
B. Port 2 on each node canister is used for the service address.
C. Only one port from either node canister must have connection to the LAN.
D. The same IP address cannot be used for both management and iSCSI host use
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is true about volume compression in a SAN Volume Controller?
A. Compressed volumes can be used to create Full, Incremental, and Nocopy flashcopies.
B. If a storage pool contains a compressed volume then every volume in that pool is compressed.
C. Compression should never be used for active live data such as an online transaction
processing database.
D. 25% of the virtual capacity of each compressed volume must be reserved as working space for
re-expansion of compressed data.
Answer: A

IBM   C4090-451 examen   certification C4090-451   C4090-451

NO.8 What is the default RAID configuration for a Storwize V7000 using 3 TB drives?
A. RAIDO
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: M2150-662
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v2)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following actions can be taken with Tivoli Endpoint Manager for Mobile Device
Manager?
A. Power Management.
B. Patch distribution.
C. Disable iCloud sync.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

IBM   M2150-662   M2150-662   M2150-662
Explanation:
Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices *Enable PW Policies *Enable Device Encryption *Force
encrypted backup *(C) Disable Sync *Corporate Access, email access, and App access contingent on
Policy Compliance! *Wipe if lost / stolen
* Wipe corporate data if employee leaves company (selective wipe)

NO.2 Which of the following best describes QRadar Network Anomaly Detection (QNAD)?
A. QNAD is a stand-alone appliance that allows the identification of anomalies on the network.
B. QNAD feeds information about the network traffic to Site Protector.
C. QNAD is an optimized version of QRadar which complements SiteProtector to optimize network
protection.
D. QNAD identifies anomalies out of the information it imports from SiteProtector.
Answer: C

IBM   certification M2150-662   certification M2150-662   certification M2150-662
Reference: PCTY 2012, Threat landscape and Security Intelligence v. Michael Andersson
URL:
http://www.slideshare.net/IBMDK/pcty-2012-threat-landscape-and-security-intelligence-vmichael-a
ndersson (slide 38)

NO.3 Which of the following is a key benefit & feature of data protection add-on?
A. Out-of-the-box compliance templates to detect credit card numbers, social security numbers,
among other sensitive data.
B. Continuous compliance to detect loss of credit card numbers, social security numbers, among
other sensitive data.
C. Patch Management to reduce the risk of data loss due to open vulnerabilities.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification M2150-662   M2150-662
Explanation:
* IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on The optional IBM Endpoint
Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on can be deployed and managed through the
IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager infrastructure. The module also helps improve data protection
capabilities while helping to control operational costs. IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection
Data Protection Add-on offers a robust data loss prevention and device control solution that
integrates into the anti-virus and anti-malware capabilities provided by the Core Protection solution
and can:
/ Secure data (sensitive or not) on devices that leave the business premises / Enforce security
policies such that users can access sensitive data for their jobs, but not misuse or lose that data /
Comply with the growing number of data privacy laws that affect the industry or company
Reference: IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on
6. Once IBM Security Virtual Server Protection (VSP) for VMware is deployed, is there still need
for other security solutions in the virtualized servers?
A. Yes there is because VSP cannot monitor host-based events (e.g. file integrity).
B. Yes there is because VSP does not monitor all traffic in the hypervisor.
C. No there is not because VSP does monitor all traffic in the hypervisor.
D. No there is not because VSP offers several layers of security.
Answer: D

IBM   certification M2150-662   M2150-662 examen

NO.4 With Tivoli Federated Identity Manager, which of the following customer scenarios is to be
addressed?
A. The provisioning of identities to more than one domain or company.
B. Strict management of privileged users' identities to absolutely ensure there is no unauthorized
sharing of their identities.
C. Cross-domain single sign-on, whether the requester is an external user or an internal employee.
D. Strong authentication requirements for any configuration.
Answer: C

IBM   M2150-662   certification M2150-662   M2150-662
Explanation:
IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business Key features include: Provide a base for the federation of
user identities. For standardized cross-domain authentication (federation), Tivoli Access Manager
for e-business customers can upgrade to Tivoli Federated Identity Manager - a modular access
control solution for cross-domain single sign-on.
Reference: IBM Tivoli Identity and Access Manager V1.0 and IBM Tivoli Unified Single Sign-On V1.0

NO.5 You are in a competitive user management/identity management/ user provisioning sale, and
the decision seems to hinge on who has the superior role management capabilities. How do you
handle this?
A. Expand the discussion to include access management and pull TAMeb into the sale.
B. Expand the discussion to include enterprise audit management and compliance and pull TSIEM
into the sale.
C. Bring Tivoli Provisioning Role Manager into the picture.
D. Tout TIM's significant role management capabilities and emphasize the fact that TIM comes with
Role and Policy Modeling in the package, whereas competitors charge extra for it.
Answer: D

certification IBM   M2150-662   M2150-662   M2150-662   certification M2150-662
Explanation:
Note:
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 helps you simplify and reduce cost of
administration:
/ Role modeling and mining helps facilitate the quick building of an effective role
and access structure from a business centric approach.
*Tivoli Identity Manager also provides:
A dynamic policy management engine that automates user provisioning and aids
in compliance efforts.
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 is an automated and policy-based solution
that manages user access across IT environments.
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager, also known as TIM, is an Identity Management System product from
IBM.
TIM provides centralized identity lifecycle management. It can automatically create, manage, and
delete user access to various system resources such as files, servers, applications, and more
based on job roles or requests.

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Code d'Examen: C4090-453
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM System Storage DS8000 Technical Solutions V3)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following items would suggest that the use of space efficient FlashCopy for the
Global Mirror secondary volume could present an issue?
A. The customer is using Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication to manage Global
Mirror
B. The workload has a large amount of heavy sequential write activity
C. There is a long distance between the primary and secondary sites
D. There are multiple primary disk subsystems in the Global Mirror session
Answer: B

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NO.2 A new D58000 mixed mainframe and open storage customer would like to connect older open
(2
Gbps) and mainframe servers (4 Gbps) to the DS8000 system’s 8 Gbps host adapters.
How can this be done?
A. through the GUI, adjust the required FOP ports for open to 2 Gbps and the FIOON ports for
mainframe to 4 Gbps link speed
B. the DS8OIJO supports 4 Gbps for mainframe connection; the 2 Gbps open systems connection
must be connected via an intermediate SAN
C. the customer needs to change the server’s HBA5 to an 8 Gbps link speed type
D. the D58000 8 Gbps Host Adapter ports auto-negotiate to 4 Gbps and 2 Gbps link speed
Answer: D

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NO.3 The output of what tool is used as input to Disk Magic to most accurately model a Windows
host
that will be used with an IBM D38000?
A. Jetstress
B. Perimon
C. IOSTAT
D. NMON
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has an existing D68800 which is installed in their data center. It now must have an
extra frame added to support additional capacity growth, but there is no room to fit the expansion
frame to the right.
Which option should be taken?
A. Fit the expansion frame to the left of the base frame
B. Configure the expansion frame with the DS8000 Passthrough feature to allow placement of the
frame anywhere
C. Disruptively relocate the D68800 to make space to the right of the base frame for the expansion
frame
D. Create an MES to replace all of the existing capacity with larger drives which support both the
existing workload and the planned increase
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer’s IT department has had problems meeting their backup window. They now
mandate
that a fast backup process be in place before an application is deployed. They have a DS8000 as
their disk subsystem and a TS3500 tape library for backups.
What is the simplest and most effective option to satis1i this requirement?
A. Implement TS1 140 drives
B. ImplementFlashCopy
C. Install Solid state Drives
D. Increase cache size
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has recently decommissioned their DS8700 wants to use the same data center
floor
space for a new D38 870.
What is an important fact for the technical specialist to discuss with the customer as it relates to
data center requirements?
A. The DS8870 uses more power than the DS8700 so more power cords will need to be ordered.
B. The DS8870 uses a different power connector than the D68700 so new cords will need to be
supplied.
C. Air circulation in the DS8870 has changed and flows back to front so cooling vent locations will
need to be adjusted.
D. The rack dimensions on the DS8870 are larger than the D38700 so more floor space will be
needed.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When configuring LUNs for IBM i which is not using VIOS, which of the following is true?
A. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
B. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
C. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
D. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
Answer: B

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NO.8 On the DS8870, which of the following drive options is a valid Easy Tier hybrid pool?
A. SLO and eMLO SSDs
B. eMLO SSDs and 5,400 RPM drives
C. 7,200 RPM drives
D. 15,000 RPM and 7,200 RPM drives
Answer: D

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IBM C2040-403, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: C2040-403
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Forms 8.0 - Form Design and Development)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 When calling one of the functions contained within the Viewer IFX, all of the following
statements
are true EXCEPT which one?
A. You must add the 'viewer' prefix to the function call.
B. Viewer functions only work when using the Viewer.
C. There is a function within the Viewer IFX to display a message box.
D. Viewer functions can be called from XForms actions.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is the best practice to set a IBM Forms data element as read only?
A. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true()"/>
B. <field sid="birthdate"><readonly>on</readonly></field>
C. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true"/>
D. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" properties="readonly"/>
Answer: A

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NO.3 How is an XForms submission handled by the Translator Server?
A. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
B. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
C. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
D. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When creating a field that can change its height based on the amount of data it contains,
which of
the following should occur?
A. The field should also be able to change width dynamically.
B. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order.
C. Items that appear below the field should be relatively positioned so that they move up or down
as the field changes size.
D. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order, and should
be relativelypositioned so that they move upor down as the field changes size.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Jane is designing a form with three pages. Pages one and two are built with a wizard style
interface, and page three is meant only for printing. How can Jane setup her form so that when
the form is printed, only page three prints?
A. Jane should only put a print button on page three, then it will be the only one that shows up
when the form is printed.
B. Jane must break up her form into two separate forms: one for the wizard and one for printing.
C. Jane can set theprint settingsproperty of page three to 'on', andprint settingsproperty for pages
one and two to 'off'.
D. Jane would create a "keep" filter, specifying page three as the only page to print.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A developer is working in IBM Forms Designer using the Standard IBM Forms perspective.
Which
of the following statements is TRUE?
A. XForms model information is always generated automatically in the background.
B. The form cannot contain an XForms model.
C. The developer should switch to the Advanced perspective to add an XForms data model.
D. XForms model information is generated automatically unless the developer indicated the form
should not contain a data model.
Answer: D

IBM   certification C2040-403   certification C2040-403

NO.7 Which of the statements below describes a benefit of XFDL?
A. XFDL simplifies HTML programming.
B. XFDL makes pre-populating form data easier because of its code level engine.
C. XFDL future-proofs electronic forms as they are in human-readable XML.
D. XFDL documents can be rendered by any word processing software.
Answer: C

IBM   C2040-403   C2040-403   C2040-403

NO.8 Where can spell checking for the Designer be enabled or disabled?
A. In the Spell Check section of the Forms Designer heading in the Preferences.
B. On the file system, by removing or replacing the dictionary files in the Designer's install folder.
C. In the global form properties dialog.
D. From the Preferences dialog opened from the Viewer's toolbar.
Answer: A

IBM   C2040-403   C2040-403

NO.9 Which statement below best describes XFDL functions?
A. XFDL functions provide a way to perform complex calculations.
B. XFDL functions can be extended via User-Defined functions.
C. XFDL functions provide out-of-the-box functionality via two packages: viewer and system.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the default namespace prefix for an IBM Form?
A. xmlns:xforms
B. xmlns:default
C. xmlns:custom
D. xmlns:xfdl
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: M2060-237
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM B2B Integration-Network-Managed File Transfer Sales Mastery Test v1 (000-M237))
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following represents a good opportunity for IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. An organization seeking secure, process-driven partner integration.
B. An organization seeking to extend their SOA and ESB infrastructures to B2B partners.
C. Customers with multiple data movement patterns and point solutions (silos) needing to
consolidate on a strategic platform.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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6. File transfer challenges are commonly seen in which industry?
A. Government
B. Telecommunications
C. Distribution and Logistics
D. Manufacturing
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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7. IBM Sterling File Gateway is IBM's multi-protocol "_______" communication solution for
secure B2B file exchange.
A. edge
B. cloud
C. internal
D. ESB
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/commerce/managed-file-transfer/products/filegatew
ay/(bulleted point #1)
8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of IBM Sterling File Gateway that helps customers
ensure that they are compliant with regulatory requirements?
A. Auditing capabilities.
B. Access controls for file transfer activity.
C. Secure file transfer protocols.
D. Encryption of files both in-flight and at rest.
E. All of the above features help customers ensure that they are compliant with regulatory
requirements.
Answer: A

certification IBM   M2060-237   M2060-237   M2060-237
Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/commerce/managed-file-transfer/products/filegatew
ay/features.html(topic: management and visibility, 4thbulleted point)

NO.2 How does IBM Sterling B2B Integrator achieve B2B Process Automation?
A. Using a proprietary scripting language.
B. By means of a visual workflow modeler.
C. Writing new Java code for each process.
D. Through manually routing messages.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 6, topic 1.3.4, last
paragraph)

NO.3 According to a study performed by IDC, customers who have implemented IBM Sterling File
Gateway have seen a ______ reduction in labor costs related to troubleshooting edge-based file
transfer activity
A. 65%
B. 50%
C. 38%
D. 90%
Answer: D

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NO.4 What can happen when data such as purchase order information is incorrectly re-keyed into
internal business systems and applications?
A. Decrease in inventory costs.
B. Late deliveries & penalties such as charge backs.
C. Increased customer satisfaction & sales.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following IBM/Sterling solutions provides "at rest" data encryption?
A. IBM Sterling Connect:Direct
B. IBM Sterling Secure Proxy
C. IBM Sterling File Gateway
D. IBM Sterling Control Center
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 247, Security, 3rd
bulleted point)

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Code d'Examen: P2090-032
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Big Data Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 34 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following options is CORRECT?
A. InfoSphere Streams submits queries to structured static data.
B. InfoSphere Streams submits queries to structured dynamic data.
C. InfoSphere Streams submits queries to unstructured dynamic data.
D. InfoSphere Streams submits dynamic data to pre-existing queries.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following options is CORRECT?
A. InfoSphere Data Explorer provides powerful navigation capabilities across all the important
information stored exclusively into Hadoop Distributed File System in a single view. No other file
systems are supported.
B. InfoSphere Data Explorer is not able to mirror pre-existing security frameworks, therefore it
doesnt make use of industry-standard authentication and authorization processes already in place.
C. InfoSphere Data Explorer can find, extract and deliver content regardless of format or where it
resides.
D. InfoSphere Data Explorer uses a vector-based index for unique search and indexing flexibility.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following InfoSphere BigInsights features provides a vast library of
extractors enabling actionable insights from large amounts of native textual data?
A. Text Analytics.
B. Adaptive MapReduce.
C. General Parallel File System.
D. BigSheets.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Hadoop environments are optimized for:
A. Processing transactions (random access).
B. Low latency data access.
C. Batch processing on large files.
D. Intensive calculation with little data.
Answer: C

IBM   P2090-032 examen   certification P2090-032   P2090-032

NO.5 Which of the following options contain security enhancements available in InfoSphere
BigInsights (Choose two) ?
A. LDAP authentication
B. Secure file transfers through SFTP protocol.
C. Trusted Context.
D. Kerberos authentication protocol.
Answer: A, B

IBM examen   certification P2090-032   P2090-032 examen   P2090-032 examen

NO.6 In a traditional Hadoop stack, which of the following components provides data warehouse
infrastructure and allows SQL developers and business analysts to leverage their existing SQL skills?
A. Avro.
B. Hive.
C. Zookeeper.
D. Text analytics.
Answer: B

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IBM C2180-276, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: C2180-276
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

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NO.1 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a process application. The
team lead has now directed the application developer to install the snapshot onto a staging server
for additional testing before it is moved into production. Assuming the default Process Server
settings are in place, what minimum level of access must the developer have in order to install the
snapshot onto the staging server? The application developer must have, at a minimum:
A. write access to the process application with no additional group membership.
B. write access to the process application and must be a member of the process-center-installgroup
as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
C. administrative access to the process application with no additional group membership.
D. administrative access to the process application and must be a member of the
process-centerinstall-group as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A BPM application developer is developing a BPM solution in a process application called
'Auto Loan Review Process' (ALREV). ALREV has an existing dependency on a toolkit called 'Financial
Calculation Services' (FCSERV). The developer is asked to update an integration service in FCSERV
and use that new service in ALREV.
What steps must the developer take to ensure that ALREV will utilize the new service created in
FCSERV?
A. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update the dependency of ALREV from the FCSERV toolkit
B. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV from the ALREV process application
C. 1. Create a new integration service in ALREV
2.Move the new integration service from ALREV to FCSERV
3.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
D. 1. Take a snapshot of FCSERV
2.Update the integration service in FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV in the ALREV process application
Answer: B

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NO.3 The business owner of a purchasing process has requested a report that displays the total time
of three activities. What should the BPM application developer use to send the data to the
Performance Data Warehouse to create this report?
A. A Timing Interval
B. A Service Level Agreement
C. Exposed Process Variables
D. Shared Business Objects
Answer: A

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NO.4 A BPM application developer needs to create custom SQL queries targeting the Business
Performance Data Warehouse to satisfy a customer's reporting requirements. While browsing the
system catalog of the database management system, the developer notices tables and views
corresponding to the tracking groups defined in the process application. Which database artifacts
should the developer query to obtain only the actively tracked data? The BPM application developer
should query the:
A. views, because the views contains more recent data than the tables.
B. views, because the views contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
C. tables, because the tables contains more recent data than the views.
D. tables, because the tables contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A BPM application developer is developing assets at a company with the following BPM
infrastructure:
A) One Process Center environment -The BPM application developer has all security privileges
required to access this environment
B) Three runtime environments- Test, Staging, and Production -Each runtime environment is a two
node, clustered environment -They are all configured as "online" environments -The BPM
application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has been asked to create a Saved Search in each environment using
the Process Admin Console. How many times must the BPM application developer open a Process
Admin Console to make this change?
A. 1 time, since the Process Center environment's Process Admin console manages all online
environments
B. 2 times, once for the Process Center environment and once for the runtime environments
C. 4 times, since each environment has it's own Process Admin console
D. 7 times, since each node in each environment has its own Process Admin console
Answer: C

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NO.6 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a high profile process
application and is now ready to deploy the solution into the test environment. The application
developer has been told to allow one peer developer and the technical team lead to review and
approve the work before it can be installed onto the test server. The application developer's
manager has requested that the process of gathering these approvals be automated for auditing
purposes. What steps must the BPM application developer take in order to fulfill this requirement?
The BPM application developer must:
A. enable governance on the high profile process and use wsadmin to install the process.
B. create a business process definition, inside of the high profile process application, to implement
the approvals governance process.
C. ask a user with the administrative authority to create a System Governance toolkit dependency to
create a process application that will be used for governance.
D. ensure that there is a task in the governance process that will allow a designated person to install
the process, using Process Center, after all approvals have been received.
Answer: C

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NO.7 After deploying a snapshot onto the production server, the BPM application developer wants
to have two development versions of the process application, one for the resolution of issues that
needs to get fixed immediately in production and one for the development of new features. How
can the BPM application developer obtain the necessary development versions without creating a
new process application?
A. Create a new snapshot for the process application.
B. Create a clone of the snapshot installed in production.
C. Create a new track from the snapshot installed in production.
D. Import the snapshot installed in production into the Process Center.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A process owner of an insurance company requests to receive an email if the amount of a loan
is higher than $50,000. After creating the custom Key Performance Indicator (KPI) Amount (currency)
and associating it to the activity, how should the BPM application developer configure the
Assignment Setting to set the value of the KPI to the amount of the loan object? Uncheck "use KPI
defaults", and apply the following settings.
A. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.local.loan.amount
B. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
C. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
D. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.local.loan.amount
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: A4040-124
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Sales Skills -v2)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 An executive has expressed frustration about the inflexibilityof reports from their IBM i system
and is looking for a solution that supports more dynamic and flexible reports.
How will DB2 Web Query support thecustomer'sneed?
A. Web Query provides collaborative tools to rapidly analyze data, business requirements and
budgets.
B. Web Query supports predictive analysis and reports rising trends so that smarter decisions can be
made.
C. Web Query provides reporting, dashboards and ad hoc query capability through simple-to-use
user interlaces.
D. Web Query combines business intelligence data, system performance, management reports and
analysis in a controlled, secure, auditable environment.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer says that they cannot use IBM i for their chosen ERP solution as some of the
application software is in Java and a Java development environment is also required.
How can this objection be addressed?
A. IBM i 7.1 on POWER7+ now supports Java running natively using DB2 for i
B. Java Virtual Machine is provided in WebSphere Application Server and runs natively on IBM i.
C. IBM i runs Javascript in a Java Virtual Machine allowing applications to run and a development
environment to be created.
D. Rational Development Studio for i has a set of Java compilers for development and a Java runtime
environment (JRE) for running applications.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An IT Director needs a relational database but cannot hire a Database Administrator (DBA) to
maintain it. How does IBM i address this challenge?
A. Systems Director Navigator for i handles DB2 database administration automatically.
B. Single Level Storage architecture and automated DB2 features mean that a DBA is not required.
C. System i Navigator manages Single Level Storage so that database administration does not require
a DBA.
D. Systems Director for i manages Single Level Storage so that database administration is easy
without a DBA.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What capabilityof single level storage increases system administrator productivity?
A. Multiple storage pools
B. Automatic data placement
C. Flexible storage attachment
D. HMC-based storage allocation
Answer: B

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NO.5 A prospective customer is considering a Power Systems solution with IBM i and PowerVM.
Other possible solutions being proposed to this customer are:
- x86 with Linux, Oracle, and VMware
- x86 with Windows, SQL Server, and VMware
How does the acquisition cost and TOO of the Power Systems solution compare with the x86
solutions?
A. With POWER7, the acquisition cost is lower than for both Windows and Linux offerings resulting
in a lower 3-year TOO.
B. Acquisition costs are similarfor all solutions, butthe software maintenance costs for database and
VMware raise the 3 yearTOO of the x86 solutions
C. Acquisition costs are slightly higherforthe Power Systems solution, but the significantly reduced
operational costs result in a lower TOO over 3 years.
D. The acquisition and 3 year operational costs are lower than the Windows solution, and the
Oracle maintenance fees result in a higher 3 year TOO compared to Power.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A POWERS 520 customer is running IBM i 54 and is moving to a POWER7 server. Which of the
following is a valid migration plan?
A. MigratelBMi5.4tothePOWER7
B. Host IBM i 54 in a client LPAR on the POWER7
C. Upgrade from IBM i 5.4 to IBM i 7.1 after migrating to POWER7
D. Upgrade to IBM i 7.1 on the Power 520, then migrate to POWER7
Answer: D

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NO.7 A 010 isconcerned about systems securityand transmission of confidential data across the
internet. What capabilities of the IBM i platform can the sales executive highlight in this situation?
A. PowerS0 software is optimized to provide security and compliance for POWER operating systems.
B. Security Access Manager combines user access management, web application protection and
encryption.
C. IBM i can send secure data across untrusted networks using SSL, IBM i Access for Windows, and
VPN connections.
D. RealSecure Server Sensor provides data loss prevention and preemptive protection while
enforcing server security policies.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What disaster recovery benefit is provided to a customer running IBM i applications when they
are using PowerHA Asynchronous Geographic Mirroring?
A. All objects are automatically replicated from an independent auxiliary storage pool to another
IBM i storage pool
B. It can be used to provide disaster recovery services to multiple company locations whether using
internal disk or SAN storage.
C. It offers a cloud-based suite of remote mirroring software that enables integrated, automated
failover for IBM i and attached x86 servers
D. Instead of IBM i server replication it delivers peer-to-peer remote copy services to any remotely
attached IBM SAN storage supported by IBM 7.1
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2040-958
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM SmartCloud Notes Hybrid Config & Onboard Data Transfer)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about the passthru server?
A. The passthru server should be registered with its own Organizational-certifier ID for security
purposes.
B. The service does not support the use of IBM Lotus Domino clustering for passthru server failover.
C. An administrator can only use one passthru server in an on-premises environment.
D. The passthru server should be on the internal network.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Conway's customer has two production IBM Lotus Domino domains. The first domain,
Renovations, has users both on-premises and in the service. The second domain, PowerRenov, only
has users on-premises. To route mail from PowerRenov users to Renovations users in the service ....
A. PowerRenov routes mail through Renovations.
B. a passthru server is required for each domain: Renovations and PowerRenov.
C. four mail hub servers are required: two in each on-premises Lotus Domino domain.
D. required Connection documents are automatically created by the Domain Configuration tool.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The IBM Lotus Domino server being used for passthru at XYZ Corp is version 8.0. Although
this seems to work fine in the IBM SmartCloud Notes hybrid model, why should XYZ Corp consider
upgrading to at least version 8.5.2?
A. The passthru server would use less hardware resources.
B. The passthru server would be easier to manage and maintain.
C. The passthru server would support more connections.
D. The passthru session connection time would be reduced, enabling faster initiation of passthru
connections.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How does directory synchronization occur between the on-premises replication hub and the
IBM SmartCloud Notes directory sync server?
A. Directory synchronization occurs each time the Domain Configuration tool runs.
B. Directory synchronization occurs when the SmartCloud Notes directory sync server connects
directly to the on-premises replication hub.
C. Directory synchronization occurs when the company administrator initiates replication with the
SmartCloud Notes directory sync server from the on-premises replication hub console.
D. Directory synchronization occurs when the SmartCloud Notes directory sync server connects to
the on-premises replication hub via a passthru server.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is required to route mail from external internet domains to users in the customer SMTP
domain who are hosted in the IBM SmartCloud Notes service?
A. A company-controlled SMTP host server configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the
users in the service
B. An SMTP server in the service configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the users in
the service.
C. Either an SMTP host server in the service configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the
users in the service or a company-controlled SMTP host server configured to accept mail for the
internet domain of the users in the service and domain verification has been completed for the
internet domain.
D. An SMTP host server in the service configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the users
in the service and a company-controlled SMTP host server configured to accept mail for the internet
domain of the users in the service.
Answer: C

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NO.6 After an administrator runs the Domain Configuration tool, check that the on-premises servers
are able to reach the IBM SmartCloud Notes servers by using the
A. ipconfig utility.
B. Telnet command.
C. Trace command.
D. Netstat command.
Answer: C

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NO.7 During IBM SmartCloud Notes account set up, a company's internet domain verification is
A. optional, but recommended and can be performed as soon as the Domain Configuration tool has
been run.
B. required, and can be performed as soon as the Domain Configuration tool has been run.
C. required, and can be performed after the Domain Configuration tool has been run and the
on-premises IBM Lotus Domino Directories have synchronized with the service.
D. Required, and can be performed after the on-premises Lotus Domino Directories have
synchronized with the service provided that a Global Domain document exists in at least one
on-premises Lotus Domino Directory.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What does running the Domain Configuration tool require?
A. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure.
B. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure and the IBM Lotus
Notes ID has write access to the on-premises IBM Lotus Domino Directory.
C. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure and the Lotus Notes
ID has write access to both the on-premises Lotus Domino directory and the passthru server's Lotus
Domino directory.
D. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure or has a valid VPN
connection to it.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A user in the IBM SmartCloud Notes service adds an on-premises user into a calendar meeting
invitation. When the chair checks the schedule for freetime slots, the client reports that freetime is
unavailable for the invitee. Which option is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The IBM Lotus Notes client of the meeting chair cannot connect to the on-premises mail server of
the invitee.
B. The Calendar Connector task is not running on the mail-routing hub server.
C. The on-premises mail server is not running IBM Lotus Domino 8.5.1 Fix Pack 2 or later.
D. The SmartCloud Notes mail server of the chair cannot connect to the on-premises mail server of
the invitee.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Once the hybrid account configuration is operational and a second directory server is to be
added, which of the following is true?
A. The customer administrator updates the IBM SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings
with the name of the server.
B. The customer administrator updates the SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings with
the name of the server and reruns the Domain Configuration Tool that was downloaded when the
initial account was configured.
C. The customer administrator updates the SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings with
the name of the server, downloads and runs the Domain Configuration Tool.
D. The customer administrator updates the SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings with
the name of the server and calls IBM Support to confirm the update has been completed.
Answer: C

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NO.11 The OU certifier for the virtual server is___________________.
A. Registered in the passthru server's domain.
B. Registered with the passthru server's ID.
C. Registered with the company's production certifier.
D. Registered in the IBM SmartCloud service.
Answer: C

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NO.12 In the directory sync server settings of the IBM SmartCloud Notes administration portal, the
Sync Status is reported as Unable to Connect. Which of these SmartCloud Notes administration tools
is useful in problem determination?
A. The configuration test tool
B. The domain configuration tool
C. The preconfiguration test tool
D. The Internet domain verification tool
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the purpose of the preconfiguration test tool?
A. To enable the Hybrid Account for mail routing.
B. To preconfigure network communication between the on-premises environment and IBM
SmartCloud Notes.
C. To enable the Hybrid Account for replication and freetime lookup.
D. To determine if the network and servers in the on-premises environment are set up correctly for
replication, mail routing, and freetime lookup.
Answer: D

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NO.14 When setting up an on-premises environment, which statement is true about the passthru
server?
A. The passthru server handles the transfer of network packets and performs mail-routing and
replication with IBM SmartCloud Notes servers.
B. The passthru server is outside the corporate DMZ.
C. The server ID for the passthru server must be registered with a unique OU-level certifier, separate
from the OU-level certifier that is used to register the hub/mail server.
D. The passthru server handles inbound connections from the SmartCloud Notes directory sync and
mail hub servers.
Answer: D

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NO.15 How do users who access IBM SmartCloud Notes using a browser receive credentials needed
for logging into SmartCloud Notes the first time?
A. Users receive a registration URL in an email sent by the SmartCloud team to the user's existing
mail account, then users are able to register their own credentials.
B. Users log into SmartCloud Notes using their IBM Lotus Notes client. Then, they open the
Welcome letter from the SmartCloud Notes team, which provides the needed credentials for
SmartCloud Notes.
C. Users access the URL for SmartCloud Notes from a browser, log in with the temporary login name
and password provided by the company administrator, then users can update their own login name
and password.
D. Users access the URL for SmartCloud Notes from a browser, log in with the login name and
temporary password provided by the company administrator, then users must update their
password on first login.
Answer: D

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