2013年8月31日星期六

Les meilleures Microsoft MB6-824 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: MB6-824
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (AX 2009 Human Resource Management)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to assemble a group of employees to address a special business need. However, you do not
want the group to be part of your formal organization. Which of the following types of organization units
should you create?
A.A line unit.
B.A line and matrix unit.
C.A line unit as the parent, and then a matrix unit as the child.
D.A matrix or a project unit.
Answer: d

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NO.2 A new employee is employed in a company and a HR assistant registers the employee data in the
Employee form. What optiona are available to categorize the employee type?
A.Internal and external employees.
B.Employees, contractors, and work centers.
C.An employee can only be registered as an Employee type.
D.A new employee is automatically registered as a Temporary and this option is mandatory until the trial
period expeires.
Answer: b

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NO.3 When can you start registering participants for a course?
A.The course is registered in their development plan.
B.When the course status is open.
C.When the course status is created.
D.As long as the registration deadline is not exceeded.
Answer: b

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NO.4 The company wants to improve the professional support and counseling that it offers to employees.
You have been given the task of creating a matrix organization unit and assigning people to act as
mentors. When you start assigning mentors to the unit, you notice that some of them are already working
in one or more matrix type units. Which of the following rules apply to matrix organization units?
A.A person can be affiliated to an indefinite number of matrix units.
B.A person can be affiliated to a maximum of five matrix units.
C.A person can be affiliated to a maximum of ten matrix units.
D.A person can be affiliated to an indefinite number of matrix units, provided the person is already
affiliated to a line unit.
Answer: a

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NO.5 The Sales department has enjoyed considerable success recently and now needs additional support
with processing the new orders. To increase the number of sales support personnel, you decide to merge
a Sales Administration Unit with the Sales Unit. How do you merge the two organization units into one?
A.Drag a unit and drop one on another, and then click Confirm when asked, Merge?
B.Select an organization unit, and select the Move option, and then indicate the unit with which you want
to merge.
C.Move all employees from one unit to the other, and then close the first unit.
D.Right-click on a unit, and then select Merge With.
Answer: b

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NO.6 The company has just updated its mobile phones to the latest model and wants to start issuing the
phones to its employees. Before the company can do so, however, it must create each phone in which of
the following Human Resource tables?
A.Loans
B.Loan types
C.Loan items
D.Create loan items
Answer: c

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NO.7 Until recently, the company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO) also performed the duties of a Chief
Operating Officer (COO). However, the company has just hired a new person to take over the
responsibilities of the COO position. You have been given the task of creating the new COO position and
must decide whether to make the position unique. For unique positions, which of the following is true?
A.Only one position can be unique in a unit.
B.For each position type, only one position can be unique in an organization unit.
C.You cannot hire or move another employee to a unique position that is currently occupied.
D.You can hire more than one employee into a unique position.
Answer: c

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NO.8 Which of the following are situations in which you would use reason codes?
A.When moving, hiring, or terminating an employee.
B.When assigning benefits.
C.When updating an employee resume.
D.When ending a recruitment project.
Answer: a

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NO.9 An employee's main employment relation with the company is which of the following?
A.A role in the line organization.
B.A job in the line organization.
C.A position in the line organization.
D.An organization unit in the line organization.
Answer: c

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NO.10 A new initiative has been launched within the company to examine overall levels of job satisfaction. A
part of the analysis involves tracking absence over the preceding year. Which of the following provides
department managers with a graphical overview of the amount and cause of employee absence?
A.Transactions
B.History
C.Absence statistics
D.Absence registration
Answer: c

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Microsoft 70-642 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 70-642
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (TS: Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring Certification )
Questions et réponses: 350 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company has an IPv4 Ethernet network.
A router named R1 connects your segment to the Internet. A router named R2 joins your subnet with a
segment named Private1. The Private1 segment has a network address of 10.128.4.0/26. Your computer
named WKS1 requires access to servers on the Private1 network. The WKS1 computer configuration is
as shown in the following table.
WKS1 is unable to connect to the Private1 network by using the current configuration. You need to add a
persistent route for the Private1 network to the routing table on WKS1.
Which command should you run on WKS1?
A. Route add -p 10.128.4.0/22 10.128.4.1
B. Route add -p 10.128.4.0/26 10.128.64.10
C. Route add -p 10.128.4.0 mask 255.255.255.192 10.128.64.1
D. Route add -p 10.128.64.10 mask 255.255.255.192 10.128.4.0
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your network contains 100 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2. A server named Server1 is
deployed on the network. Server1 will be used to collect events from the Security event logs of the other
servers on the network.
You need to define the Custom Event Delivery Optimization settings on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Event Viewer
B. Task Scheduler
C. Wecutil
D. Wevtutil
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your network uses IPv4.
You install a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 at a branch office. The server is configured with
two network interfaces.
You need to configure routing on the server at the branch office. Which two actions should you perform?
(Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install the Routing and Remote Access Services role service.
B. Run the netsh ras ip set access ALL command.
C. Run the netsh interface ipv4 enable command.
D. Enable the IPv4 Router Routing and Remote Access option.
Answer: A, D

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NO.4 You have a DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. You need to reduce the size of the
DHCP database.
What should you do?
A. From the DHCP snap-in, reconcile the database.
B. From the folder that contains the DHCP database, run jetpack.exe dhcp.mdb temp.mdb.
C. From the properties of the dhcp.mdb file, enable the File is ready for archiving attribute.
D. From the properties of the dhcp.mdb file, enable the Compress contents to save disk space attribute.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 is
configured as a DNS server.
You need to ensure that Server1 only resolves queries issued from client computers in the same subnet
as Server1. The solution must ensure that Server1 can resolve Internet host names.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Configure Windows Firewall.
B. Create a conditional forwarder.
C. Modify the routing table.
D. Create a trust anchor.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You need to capture the HTTP traffic to and from a server every day between 09:00 and 10:00.
What should you do?
A. Create a scheduled task that runs the Netsh tool.
B. Create a scheduled task that runs the Nmcap tool.
C. From Network Monitor, configure the General options.
D. From Network Monitor, configure the Capture options.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the
Routing and Remote Access service (RRAS) role service installed. You need to view all inbound VPN
packets. The solution must minimize the amount of data collected.
What should you do?
A. From RRAS, create an inbound packet filter.
B. From Network Monitor, create a capture filter.
C. From the Registry Editor, configure file tracing for RRAS.
D. At the command prompt, run netsh.exe ras set tracing rasauth enabled.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. You plan to create a custom script.
You need to ensure that each time the script runs, an entry is added to the Application event log.
Which tool should you use.?
A. Eventcreate
B. Eventvwr
C. Wecutil
D. Wevtutil
Answer: A

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NO.9 Your company has an IPv6 network that has 25 segments. You deploy a server on the IPv6 network.
You need to ensure that the server can communicate with all segments on the IPv6 network.
What should you do?
A. Configure the IPv6 address as fd00::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/8.
B. Configure the IPv6 address as fe80::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
C. Configure the IPv6 address as ff80::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
D. Configure the IPv6 address as 0000::2b0:d0ff:fee9:4143/64.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Your network contains a server that has the SNMP Service installed.
You need to configure the SNMP security settings on the server.
Which tool should you use?
A. Local Security Policy
B. Scw
C. Secedit
D. Services console
Answer: D

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NO.11 Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the
SNMP Service installed.
You perform an SNMP query against Server1 and discover that the query returns the incorrect
identification information.
You need to change the identification information returned by Server1. What should you do?
A. From the properties of the SNMP Service, modify the Agent settings.
B. From the properties of the SNMP Service, modify the General settings.
C. From the properties of the SNMP Trap Service, modify the Logon settings.
D. From the properties of the SNMP Trap Service, modify the General settings.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Your company has computers in multiple locations that use IPv4 and IPv6. Each location is protected
by a firewall that performs symmetric NAT.
You need to allow peer-to-peer communication between all locations. What should you do?
A. Configure dynamic NAT on the firewall.
B. Configure the firewall to allow the use of Teredo.
C. Configure a link local IPv6 address for the internal interface of the firewall.
D. Configure a global IPv6 address for the external interface of the firewall.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You have a Windows Server 2008 R2 computer that has an IP address of 172.16.45.9/21. The server
is configured to use IPv6 addressing.
You need to test IPv6 communication to a server that has an IP address of 172.16.40.18/21.
What should you do from a command prompt?
A. Type ping 172.16.45.9:::::.
B. Type ping ::9.45.16.172.
C. Type ping followed by the Link-local address of the server.
D. Type ping followed by the Site-local address of the server.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Your company uses DHCP to lease IPv4 addresses to computers at the main office. A WAN link
connects the main office to a branch office. All computers in the branch office are configured with static IP
addresses. The branch office does not use DHCP and uses a different subnet.
You need to ensure that the portable computers can connect to network resources at the main office and
the branch office.
How should you configure each portable computer?
A. Use a static IPv4 address in the range used at the branch office.
B. Use an alternate configuration that contains a static IP address in the range used at the main office.
C. Use the address that was assigned by the DHCP server as a static IP address.
D. Use an alternate configuration that contains a static IP address in the range used at the branch office.
Answer: D

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NO.15 You have a DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. The DHCP server has two network
connections named LAN1 and LAN2.
You need to prevent the DHCP server from responding to DHCP client requests on LAN2. The server
must continue to respond to non-DHCP client requests on LAN2.
What should you do?
A. From the DHCP snap-in, modify the bindings to associate only LAN1 with the DHCP service.
B. From the DHCP snap-in, create a new multicast scope.
C. From the properties of the LAN1 network connection, set the metric value to 1.
D. From the properties of the LAN2 network connection, set the metric value to 1.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Your network contains a DHCP server named DHCP1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. All client
computers on the network obtain their network configurations from DHCP1. You have a client computer
named Client1 that runs Windows 7 Enterprise. You need to configure Client1 to use a different DNS
server than the other client computers on the network. What should you do?
A. Configure the scope options.
B. Create a reservation.
C. Create a DHCP filter.
D. Define a user class.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Your company is designing its public network. The network will use an IPv4 range of 131.107.40.0/22.
The network must be configured as shown in the following exhibit.
You need to configure subnets for each segment.
Which network addresses should you assign?
A. Segment A: 131.107.40.0/23
Segment B: 131.107.42.0/24
Segment C: 131.107.43.0/25
Segment D: 131.107.43.128/27
B. Segment A: 131.107.40.0/25
Segment B: 131.107.40.128/26
Segment C: 131.107.43.192/27
Segment D: 131.107.43.224/30
C. Segment A: 131.107.40.0/23
Segment B: 131.107.41.0/24
Segment C: 131.107.41.128/25
Segment D: 131.107.43.0/27
D. Segment A: 131.107.40.128/23
Segment B: 131.107.43.0/24
Segment C: 131.107.44.0/25
Segment D: 131.107.44.128/27
Answer: A

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NO.18 Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2. A
DHCP server is deployed on the network and configured to provide IPv6 prefixes. You need to ensure that
when you monitor network traffic, you see the interface identifiers derived from the Extended Unique
Identifier (EUI)-64 address. Which command should you run?
A. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set global addressmaskreply=disabled
B. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set global dhcpmediasense=enabled
C. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set global randomizeidentifiers=disabled
D. netsh.exe interface ipv6 set privacy state=enabled
Answer: C

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NO.19 Your network contains a domain controller named DC1 and a member server named Server1.
You save a copy of the Active Directory Web Services (ADWS) event log on DC1. You copy the log to
Server1.
You open the event log file on Server1 and discover that the event description information is unavailable.
You need to ensure that the event log file displays the same information when the file is open on Server1
and on DC1.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Import a custom view.
B. Copy the SYSVOL folder from DC1.
C. Copy the LocaleMetaData folder from DC1.
D. Create a custom view.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Your company is designing its network. The network will use an IPv6 prefix of
2001:DB8:BBCC:0000::/53. You need to identify an IPv6 addressing scheme that will support 2000
subnets.
Which network mask should you use?
A. /61
B. /62
C. /63
D. /64
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: MB6-817
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (AX 2009 Trade and Logistics)
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 You are the Quality assurance manager in the Contoso company. You receive customer
complaints about the screen image quality of the item 1000 LCD Television. How do you initiate
the test task to test the screen image for this item in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Create a Quarantine order from a sales order.
B.Click Functions > Test from a sales order.
C.Create and set up a new problem type.
D.Create a manual quality order.
Correct:D

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NO.2 Which of the following must be set up before creating transfer orders in Microsoft Dynamics
AX 2009? Choose the 2 that apply.
A.The transport time must be created and set up.
B.The transit warehouse must be created.
C.The To warehouse must have a transit warehouse attached.
D.The From warehouse must have a transit warehouse attached.
Correct:B D

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NO.3 If warehouse is specified as the primary stocking dimension, and warehouse is specified on a
sales order line, how does this influence automatic reservation?
A.A reservation is made against the dimension with the lowest alphanumeric ID.
B.Items are reserved only at the warehouse specified.
C.Items are reserved according to the LIFO principle.
D.Items are reserved according to the FIFO principle.
Correct:B

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NO.4 You are a new order processor in the Contoso company. You must enter a new sales order into
the system. However, you are not sure that all the data is correct. Therefore, you would like a more
experienced Order Processor to check it before confirming the order. How can you handle this in
Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Create a sales order of the type Journal.
B.Create a sales order of the type Subscription.
C.Create a Blanket order.
D.Create a sales quotation.
Correct:A

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NO.5 If the counted quantity of items is more or less than the posted quantity, what happens when
you post the Counting journal?
A.Counting transactions are created and posted for each item counted.
B.Profit and loss transactions are created but not posted.
C.The quantity difference report is generated.
D.The difference in quantity should be manually posted.
Correct:A

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NO.6 How can you set up a quality order to be generated automatically after you post a purchase
order picking list for an item?
A.Select the Create quality order automatically check box in Inventory management parameters.
B.Define rules in the Quality associations form.
C.When setting up posting profiles, set the Quality order field to Automatic.
D.When posting the picking list, select the Create quality order check box.
Correct:B

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NO.7 A serialized item belongs to an inventory model group that has the Picking requirement
parameter selected. The Blank issue check box is selected in the item dimensiongroup. How does
this influence the picking process? Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Serial numbers must be specified before a packing slip update, as the settings in the inventory model
group overrule the settings in the dimension group.
B.The sales order cannot be invoice updated without specifying serial numbers.
C.Order lines can be picked and invoiced without specifying serial numbers for the items.
D.Picking list registration must be performed.
Correct:C D

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NO.8 Which of the following is not a storage dimension in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Site
B.Batch
C.Pallet ID
D.Size
Correct:D

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.9 If you want a task to be completed within a specific period of time, how can you set this up in a
purchase requisition workflow configuration?
A.Specify the From and To dates in a workflow configuration.
B.Select the Set a time limit for the task check box and specify a time limit.
C.Activate the automatic actions in Accounts payable parameters.
D.Create a separate workflow and define alert rules for the task.
Correct:B

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.10 The item Plasma Television Model 01 is set up with the following specifications: In the batch
number group assigned to the item, the allocation method is set up as follows: The Only for
inventory transactions check box is selected, the On physical update check box is selected, and
10 is specified in the Per qty. field.The items dimension group has batch number activation. When
a purchase order for 200 Plasma Television Model 01 is posted, when are the batch numbers
allocated to the items,and how many inventory transactions are made?
A.The batch numbers are allocated on receipt list update and 20 transactions are made.
B.The batch numbers are allocated on receipt list update and 200 transactions are made.
C.The batch numbers are allocated on packing slip update and 20 transactions are made.
D.The batch numbers are allocated on packing slip update and 200 transactions are made.
Correct:C

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.11 Which of the following is not a non-conformance type in the Quality management module of
Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Customer
B.Service request
C.Item
D.Production
Correct:C

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.12 What is the issue status of an inventory transaction, after you ship a transfer order?
A.Shipped
B.Delivered
C.Received
D.Sold
Correct:D

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.13 What is the Item arrival functionality used for in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.For estimating and managing item arrival alerts
B.For viewing expected receipts and to start the arrival processing
C.For registering items that are delivered to the transfer warehouse
D.For checking that ordered items physically arrived to the quarantine warehouse
Correct:B

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.14 You are an order processor in the Contoso company. You want to validate an order entry setup
for your best customers. It must be valid for all sites on every workday, at 4 p.m. How can you
achieve this?
A.Select the All sites and All order group check box in the Activate order entry deadline combinations form.
B.Create a new entry order deadline group and approve it.
C.Activate assign an order entry deadline group to a customer.
D.Create a group, activate the combination, and set up the combination with the weekdays and time.
Correct:D

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.15 How can you specify item prices in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009? Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Automatically, if setup in the inventory parameters.
B.Manually, on the Setup tab of the Customer/Vendor form.
C.Manually, on the Price/Discount tab of the Items form.
D.By using costing versions.
Correct:C D

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.16 You are a warehouse employee. How can you save your settings for the Arrival overview form to
your computer?
A.Specify a setup name on the Setup tab of the Arrival overview form and select to save the current
settings.
B.Specify a setup name on the Setup tab of the Inventory parameters form and select to save the current
settings.
C.The system does not allow you to save settings for the Arrival overview form on your local machine.
D.Create new or update your current settings, save them, and select your computer in the Apply to field.
Correct:A

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.17 The item 9004 is a high-risk item. The Contoso company must be able to trace each of these
items back to purchase and forward to sales if it becomes necessary to recall the items. Which of
the following options do you choose to ensure this full traceability?
A.Set up a unique inventory model group for the item.
B.Manually allocate unique serial numbers to the items on issue.
C.Assign a serial number group to the item that allocates unique serial numbers to each item on receipt.
D.Set up the item inventory model group to automatically assign unique Lot IDs to each item.
Correct:C

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.18 Which of the following is not an item dimension in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Color
B.Batch number
C.Size
D.Configuration
Correct:B

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.19 How can you reserve items that are not on hand, but for which purchase orders are created?
A.Automatic reservation should be used.
B.Ordered but not yet received items are always available for reservations.
C.Select the Allow negative quantity check box for the item.
D.Select the Reserve ordered items check box in Inventory parameters.
Correct:D

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

NO.20 You are the Materials manager in the Contoso company. You set up item 1007 CRT Television
Model 01. The sales warehouse for this item is warehouse 21. How can you prevent the sales
warehouse from being changed on the sales order line, after the line is created?
A.Disable the warehouse change parameter on the sales order header.
B.In the Default order settings form, specify that the sales warehouse selected for the item is mandatory.
C.Select the Primary stocking check box in the item dimension group.
D.Specify warehouse 21 and select the Mandatory check box in the Create sales order dialog box.
Correct:B

Microsoft   MB6-817   MB6-817   MB6-817

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2013年8月30日星期五

Zend-Technologies 100-500 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 100-500
Nom d'Examen: Zend-Technologies (Zend Framework Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 202 Q&As

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Chaque expert dans l'équipe de Pass4Test ont son autorité dans cette industrie. Ils profitent ses expériences et ses connaissances professionnelles à préparer les documentations pour les candidats de test Certification IT. Les Q&As produites par Pass4Test ont une haute couverture des questions et une bonne précision des réponses qui vous permettent la réussie de test par une seule fois. D'ailleurs, un an de service gratuit en ligne après vendre est aussi disponible pour vous.

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NO.1 Which of the following methods in Zend_Controller_Action can be used for resetting the state
when multiple controllers use the same helper in the chained actions?
A. preDispatch()
B. setActionController()
C. postDispatch()
D. init()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   100-500 examen   certification 100-500   100-500

NO.2 Which of the following are the configuration files that are used in Zend_Config?
A. Zend_Config_Server
B. Zend_Config_Xml
C. Zend_Config_Db
D. Zend_Config_Ini
Answer: B,D

Zend-Technologies examen   certification 100-500   100-500   certification 100-500   100-500

NO.3 Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to send an email in the HTML format.
Answer: setBodyHTML()

NO.4 Which of the following actions may fail if you have exceeded your quota limit?
A. addTo()
B. send()
C. addBcc()
D. appendMessage()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500 examen   100-500

NO.5 Which of the following functions sets up start and end element handlers?
A. xml_parse_into_struct()
B. xml_parser_create_ns()
C. xml_set_object()
D. xml_set_element_handler()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies examen   100-500   100-500 examen   100-500   100-500

NO.6 You want a formatted date for an RSS feed. Which of the following code syntaxes will you use
to accomplish the task?
A. Zend_Date::RSSFEED
B. Zend_Date::RSS
C. $RSS= new Zend_RSS_Date()
D. Zend_Date->RSS
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies examen   100-500   100-500 examen

NO.7 In which of the following situations will you use the set_exception_handler() function?
A. When you want to restore a previously defined exception handler function.
B. When the try/catch block is unable to catch an exception.
C. When you want to set a user-defined function to handle errors.
D. When you want to generate a user-level error/warning/notice message.
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500 examen   100-500

NO.8 Celina works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses an Oracle
database. The database contains a table named Employees. Following is the structure of the table:
EmpID NUMBER (5) PRIMARY KEY
EmpName VARCHAR2 (35) NOT NULL
Salary NUMBER (9, 2) NOT NULL
Commission NUMBER (4, 2)
ManagerName VARCHAR2 (25)
ManagerID NUMBER (5)
Celina wants to display the names of employees and their managers, using a self join. Which of the
following SQL statements will she use to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e, Employeesm WHERE e.EmpID =
m.ManagerID;
B. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e INNER JOIN Employeesm ON e.EmpID
= m.ManagerID;
C. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN Employees m ON
e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
D. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName FROM Employees e SELF JOIN Employeesm ON e.EmpID =
m.ManagerID;
Answer: A,B

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500 examen   certification 100-500

NO.9 You want to set the form method in post and action to /uc/zend.php when you are using the
Zend_Form class. Which of the following code snippets will you use to accomplish the task?
A. <?php
$form->setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->setMethod('post');
B. <?php
echo "<form action=\"/uc/zend.php \" method=POST>";
C. <?php
$form->('/uc/zend.php')
->('post');
D. <?php
$form->Zend::setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->Zend::setMethod('post');
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500   certification 100-500

NO.10 Which of the following functions can be used as a countermeasure to a Shell Injection attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. mysql_real_escape_string()
B. escapeshellcmd()
C. regenerateid()
D. escapeshellarg()
Answer: B,D

certification Zend-Technologies   100-500 examen   certification 100-500

NO.11 Which of the following is used to create a new Memory Manager?
A. Zend_Memory::factory()
B. Zend_Memory->NewMemoryManager()
C. Zend_Memory->factory()
D. Zend_Memory::NewMemoryManager()
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   100-500   100-500 examen

NO.12 Which of the following code snippets will you use to instantiate Zend_XmlRpc_Server?
A. $server = Zend_Xml::Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
B. $server = new Zend_Xml();
C. $server = new Zend_XmlRpc_Server();
D. $server = create_new_Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies examen   100-500 examen   certification 100-500   100-500 examen   100-500 examen   certification 100-500

NO.13 You want to retrieve all the data from any given table. You also want to ensure that no
duplicate values are displayed. Which of the following SQL statements will you use to accomplish
the task?
A. SELECT...TOP
B. SELECT...WHERE
C. SELECT...DISTINCT
D. SELECT...ALL
Answer: C

certification Zend-Technologies   certification 100-500   100-500   100-500

NO.14 You have a table created as follows:
create table foo (c1 int, c2 char(30), c3 int, c4 char(10)) If column c1 is unique, which of the
following indexes would optimize the statement given below?
Select distinct (c1), c3 from foo where c1=10
A. create unique index foox on foo (c1) include (c3)
B. create index foox on foo (c1)
C. create index foox on foo (c1,c3)
D. create unique index foox on foo (c1,c3)
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies examen   100-500   100-500   100-500 examen

NO.15 Which of the following methods will you use to retain the identity across requests according to
the PHP session configuration?
A. isValid()
B. getIdentity()
C. Zend_Auth::authenticate()
D. getCode()
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies   certification 100-500   100-500   certification 100-500   100-500

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FileMaker meilleur examen FM0-307, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: FM0-307
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 12 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

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NO.1 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
And the relationship is configured as follows:
Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list of all of
a salesperson's orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order records
are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E

FileMaker   FM0-307   FM0-307

NO.2 Given two tables in FileMaker Pro 12 with the following fields and table occurrences:
What two methods can be used to add a portal to a layout based on the Players table, which
shows only the names of the current player's teammates, but not the current player's name? (Choose
two.)
A. base the portal on the relationship Players:: Team ID = Teammates:: Team ID And use a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerID Self
B. base the portal on the relationship Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID Set a sort order of PlayerID.
Ascending on the relationship, and Configure the portal to have an Initial row value of 2.
C. bases the portal on the multi-predicate relationship: Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID AND
Players: PlayerID Teammates:: PlayerID
D. base the portal on the relationship Players:: TeamID = Teammates:: TeamID And use a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerID Teammates:: PlayerID
Answer: C,D

FileMaker   FM0-307 examen   FM0-307 examen   FM0-307   certification FM0-307

NO.3 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.4 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula: FirstName & "
" & LastNarne
FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all referenced
fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

FileMaker   FM0-307   FM0-307   FM0-307

NO.5 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 12 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: A

certification FileMaker   FM0-307 examen   FM0-307   FM0-307

NO.6 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 12 Advanced?
A. 10, 000
B. 32, 000
C. 50, 000
D. 64, 000
Answer: D

FileMaker   FM0-307   FM0-307   FM0-307 examen   certification FM0-307

NO.7 DRAG DROP
Match the FileMaker Server 12 hosting technology with the maximum number of concurrent client
connections.
Answer:

NO.8 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the FileMaker
Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A

certification FileMaker   FM0-307 examen   FM0-307   FM0-307

NO.9 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records ... nor the Delete
related records ... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

FileMaker examen   FM0-307   certification FM0-307   certification FM0-307

NO.10 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 12 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

certification FileMaker   FM0-307 examen   FM0-307

NO.11 For which field type can the field validation setting Strict data type: Numeric Only be applied?
A. Text
B. Date
C. Integer
D. Summary
E. Timestamp
Answer: A

certification FileMaker   certification FM0-307   FM0-307 examen   FM0-307 examen

NO.12 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 12 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
B. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
C. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of match fields can be used.
D. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: A,E

FileMaker examen   FM0-307   certification FM0-307   FM0-307   certification FM0-307

NO.13 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.14 What will a recursive custom function do when a stack limit is exceeded?
A. returns !
B. returns ?
C. returns Error 1203: Unexpected end of calculation
D. produces a spinning beach ball (Mac OS X) or a rotating cursor (Windows)
Answer: C

FileMaker   certification FM0-307   FM0-307   FM0-307 examen   certification FM0-307

NO.15 Which statement is true given two FileMaker Pro 12 files, Vendors and Products, if a table from
Products appears on the Vendors Relationships Graph?
A. Scripts in Vendors can reference data from global variables defined in Products.
B. Layouts from Products can be displayed in the same window as layouts from Vendors.
C. Vendors can contain multiple valid external FileMaker Data Sources referencing Products.
D. A table occurrence from Products is required on the Vendors Relationships Graph in order to call a
script in Products from Vendors
Answer: C

FileMaker examen   FM0-307   certification FM0-307   FM0-307

NO.16 Which statement is true about the Relationships Graph in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Table occurrences can represent tables from external JDBC data sources.
B. A single Relationships Graph can include references to no more than 256 external files.
C. A set of relationships between tables can be created as a loop if every table occurrence in the loop has
a unique name.
D. The Allow creation of records in this table via this relationship setting can be selected between two
table occurrences if the relationship includes only equality (=, or ) matches between fields.
Answer: D

FileMaker   FM0-307   FM0-307 examen   FM0-307   FM0-307

NO.17 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both
Answer: D,E

FileMaker examen   certification FM0-307   FM0-307

NO.18 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. Create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. Find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. Create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. Display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: B,E

FileMaker examen   FM0-307   certification FM0-307   FM0-307 examen   certification FM0-307

NO.19 Which two statements are true about container fields that are configured to Store container data
externally in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two)
A. Container data stored externally using Secure storage is encrypted.
B. FileMaker Pro 12 can store a maximum of 64 million external files per database file.
C. It is possible to customize the directory location where FileMaker Pro 12 will store external container
data.
D. Once a container field has been configured to store data internally, the data must be re-imported if the
field is changed to store data externally.
Answer: A,C

FileMaker   FM0-307   certification FM0-307   FM0-307

NO.20 A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter calculated value,
with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace existing value of field
unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be refreshed
with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer record
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: VCP-510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)
Questions et réponses: 310 Q&As

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NO.1 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.5 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.9 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.13 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.16 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.20 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4 (VCP-410日本語版))
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NO.1 管理者は、 サー ビスコンソールのメモリ要件を増加させる ESX 4.x ホスト上でサポート
される追加コンポーネントを゗ンストールする予定です。
この゗ンストールを実行することについて次のどれが本当ですか(二つ選んでください) 。
A.ESX ホストのメモリには、 CLI を使用して調整する必要があり、 再起動の必要がありません。
B.vmkcore パーテゖションは、追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
C. ホストのメモリは、vSphere Client または CLI を使用して調整する必要があるでしょう。そ
して、ESX ホストは再起動する必要があります。
D. スワップパーテゖションが追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 次のストレージ· リソースのどれが ESX 4.x の゗ンストール時のみに作成されています
か(二つ選んでください) 。
A. vmkcore
B. swap
C. VMFS datastore
D. scratch
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 管理者は、 SAN から起動する 10 台の ESX 4.x ホストのために、 VMFS および vmkcore パ
ーテゖションを提供する単一の SAN ボリュームを設定しています。
vmkcore パーテゖションが 10 台のホストを サポートするために、このボリューム上に存在
する必要がある最小サ゗ズはどのくらいですか。
A. vmkcore パーテゖシ ョンは、ローカルストレージに格納する必要があります
B. 1GB
C. 2GB
D. 500MB
Answer: B

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NO.4 ESX 4.x の゗ンストールを実行するときは、 サービス? コンソール? フゔ゗ル? システ ムの
有効な場所は次のどれですか(二つ選んでください)?? 。
A. 共有 VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖスク内。
B. SAN デゖスク上の ESX ホストのみにマスクされた VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デ
ゖスク内。
C. ローカルストレー ジにある ext3 フゔ゗ルシステム内。
D. ローカルストレー ジ上の VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖ スク内。
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 次のタスクのど れが ESXi ホストのホーム· ページから選択することができますか (三つ
選んでください)??。
A. このホストの゗ンベントリのデータストゕを閲覧します。
B. vSphere 4 のドキュ メントを表示します
C. VMware vCenter Server をダウンロードします
D. VMware Web Access Client をダウンロード します。
E. このホストの゗ンベントリ内の仮想マシンを閲覧します。
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 ゕドバンスラ゗ センスで使用できるソケットあたりのコゕの最大数は何ですか。
A. 6
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.7 ESXi 4.x のデフォルト? スワップパーテゖションのサ゗ズは、次のどれですか。
A. 544MB
B. 4GB
C. 600MB
D. 1.6GB
Answer: B

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NO.8 次の機能のうち どれが vSphere Advanced Edition の一部ではな いのですか。
A. VMware High Availability
B. VMware Fault Tolerance
C. VMware DRS
D. VMware vShield Zones
Answer: C

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NO.9 vCenter Server 4.x を゗ンストールする場合、 ラ゗センスはどこで維持されますか (二つ
選んでください) 。
A. ESXi ホ スト上
B. ラ゗センスサーバ ー内
C. vCenter Server デー タベースで
D. vCenter Server マシ ンのラ゗センスフゔ゗ル内
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 管理者は物理サ ーバーに ESX 4.x を゗ンストールしています。
正常な゗ンストールをサポートするために、 次のコンポーネントのどれが変更されるま たは
交換される必要があるでしょうか。
A. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
B. SATA disk controller
C. 1GB RAM
D. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
Answer: C

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