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Code d'Examen: 4A0-110
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Advanced Troubleshooting)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-100
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Scalable IP Networks)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A.A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.
B.A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the
data.
C.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
E.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
ANSWER: b

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NO.2 Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two)
A.Controls distribution of IP addresses.
B.Simplifies protocol functionality.
C.Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.
D.Increases protocol operational efficiencies.
E.Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data
ANSWER: cd

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NO.3 What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers
A.A large corporation.
B.An ISP.
C.A home based business.
D.A content provider.
ANSWER: b

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NO.4 Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?
A.The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980s following the US militarys adoption of
TCP/IP in 1983.
B.The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.
C.The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000
when the world wide web was conceived.
D.Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into
research and education based networks.
ANSWER: b

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NO.5 What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?
A.Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network.
B.A list of other DHCP clients.
C.IP addresses and their lease times.
D.Server time information
ANSWER: c

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NO.6 The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses
will you obtain with this mask?
A.4 subnets, 64 hosts
B.64 subnets, 4 hosts
C.4 subnets, 62 hosts
D.64 subnets, 2 hosts
E.6 subnets, 30 hosts
ANSWER: c

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NO.7 Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?
A.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.
B.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services
C.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.
D.The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or
HTML.
ANSWER: a

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NO.8 You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface
(CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control
command allows you to do this quickly?
A.Ctrl-z
B.Ctrl-c
C.Esc
D.Shift-Page Down
ANSWER: a

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-103
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multiprotocol Label Switching)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-107
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Quality of Service)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-108
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multicast Protocols)
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following indicates the path over which an LSP's tail end router will return an RSVP RESV
message?
A. The IGP FIB.
B. The Reservation State Block (RSB)
C. The Path State Block (PSB)
D. The opaque database.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements best describe MPLS fast reroute characteristics? (Choose two)
A. Fast reroute requires you to manually define detour paths.
B. Fast reroute provides path protection close to the failure point
C. Fast reroute performs automatic path calculation and signaling.
D. Fast reroute protects both primary and secondary paths.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements best describes downstream unsolicited label distribution?
A. An LER may answer requests for label mappings immediately, without waiting for a label mapping from
the next-hop.
B. An LER may advertise label mappings to all peers for which it might be a next-hop for a given FEC.
C. An LER propagates a label mapping downstream for a FEC. only if it has a label mapping for the FEC
next-hop.
D. An LER will only distribute a label for a FEC when it has been requested to do so.
Answer: B

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NO.4 During node protection signaling, the PLR knows the address of the MP from which of the following
methods?
A. The PLR issues a RSVP path message to the destination router to request the address of the MP.
B. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the ERO.
C. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the RRO
D. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the targeted RSVP hello message.
E. The PLR does not need to know the address of the MP.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Assume that, on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, an LSP is configured with one-to-one FRR and node
protection. Which of the following statements are FALSE? (Choose two)
A. Each PLR signals a detour LSP that avoids the downstream node. If the downstream node cannot be
avoided, a detour LSP that avoids the downstream link is signaled.
B. The detour LSP can take one or more hops before merging back on the protected LSP.
C. The merge point of the protected LSP must be the next-next-hop node
D. The ingress router will set the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object of the path
message to inform all routers along the protected LSP path to establish detour LSPs.
E. The label recording desired flag must be set in the session attribute object in order for the PLR to know
what label to swap when using the detour LSP.
Answer: C,E

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NO.6 Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the output below, which of the following statements are true? (Choose three)
A. A packet arriving with label 131066 and destined for prefix 10.10.10.243/32 will be forwarded out
interface 1/1/4, with label 131070.
B. LDP ECMP is enabled.
C. The router ¯ s sys t e m add r ess i s 10 . 10 . 10 . 242 / 32 .
D. There are multiple LSPs to reach FEC 10.10.10.244/32.
E. The router cannot receive any unlabeled packets destined for prefix 10.10.10 223/32.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 You wish to advertise LDP labels for all local networks; which is the most effective policy statement to
use?
A. from prefix-list direct
B. match local
C. from protocol direct
D. match protocol direct
E. from protocol local
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click on the exhibit button below.
With fast reroute enabled, and given the following:
-Two protected LSPs with the path R1-R2-R3
-Both LSPs enable facility bypass and link protection.
When router R1 is the PLR, which router becomes the MP?
A. Router R1
B. Router R2
C. Router R3
D. Router R4
E. Router R5
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-109
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Triple Play Services)
Questions et réponses: 172 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-107
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Quality of Service)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-106
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private Routed Networks)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS.?
A. Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss
B. Latency, FIFO, WRED
C. Delay, jitter, packet loss
D. SNR, queue depth, latency
E. Attenuation, dispersion, latency
Answer: C

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NO.2 The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant
(first) bits define precedence.
A. 8, 6, 3
B. 8, 8, 6
C. 16, 8, 4
D. 8, 6, 4
E. 24, 16, 8
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click the exhibit button below.
Based on the configuration shown below, name the forwarding class to be associated with a TCP packet
encapsulated inside an Ethernet frame that arrives on SAP 1/1/5 with the following characteristics:
Destination IP address = 120.110.1.1
TCP port number = 23
DSCP value = nc1
Dot1pvalue = 3
A. H2
B. NC
C. L2
D. EF
E. H1
F. BE
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of SAP-ingress policies that can be applied on a SAP?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 8
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following are major components of QoS functionality on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
(Choose three)
A. Microflow reservations using RSVP
B. DSCP to EXP translation
C. Traffic classification
D. Automatic profiling and policy configuration
E. Buffer memory management
F. Traffic scheduling
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.6 Which of the following can be used as classifiers of customer traffic? (Choose three)
A. DSCP value
B. 802.1p value
C. IP DF bit
D. TCP/UDP port numbers
E. HTML version number
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 6
D. 4
E. 3
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?
A. 010011
B. 100010
C. 010001
D. 001100
E. 010010
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-101
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Interior Routing Protocols and High Availability)
Questions et réponses: 177 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 4A0-107
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Quality of Service)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.
B. The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.
C. The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.
D. To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.
E. DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following can be used as classifiers of customer traffic? (Choose three)
A. DSCP value
B. 802.1p value
C. IP DF bit
D. TCP/UDP port numbers
E. HTML version number
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Individual application streams are considered microflows, whereas __________ are considered
macroflows.
A. SAPs
B. SDPs
C. Services
D. Queues
E. Schedulers
F. Forwarding classes
Answer: F

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NO.4 Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)
A. DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.
B. DSCP is a 6-bit field.
C. DSCP specifies eight different priorities.
D. DSCP specifies four precedence levels.
E. DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header
F. DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS.?
A. Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss
B. Latency, FIFO, WRED
C. Delay, jitter, packet loss
D. SNR, queue depth, latency
E. Attenuation, dispersion, latency
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are characteristics of 802.1p? (Choose two)
A. 802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 2 header,
B. 802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 3 header.
C. 802.1p specifies 64 different priority levels.
D. 802.1p uses a field in the 802.1Q header.
E. 802.1p uses a field in the Layer 3 IP header
F. 802.1p defines a 3-bit Class of Service field.
Answer: D,F

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NO.7 What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?
A. 010011
B. 100010
C. 010001
D. 001100
E. 010010
Answer: E

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NO.8 The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant
(first) bits define precedence.
A. 8, 6, 3
B. 8, 8, 6
C. 16, 8, 4
D. 8, 6, 4
E. 24, 16, 8
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-103
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multiprotocol Label Switching)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following indicates the path over which an LSP's tail end router will return an RSVP RESV
message?
A. The IGP FIB.
B. The Reservation State Block (RSB)
C. The Path State Block (PSB)
D. The opaque database.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the common usage of the MPLS EXP bits?
A. Each implementation can use them as they see fit.
B. They are used to carry the Ethertype value.
C. They are used to carry the TTL value.
D. They are used to carry QoS classification.
E. They are used to carry fragmentation flag information
Answer: D

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NO.3 Router R3 signals an LSP, reserving 1Gbps bandwidth on a 10Gbps link. RSVP configuration limits
reservable bandwidth to 20 percent on the egress interface. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The egress RSVP interface has 80 percent bandwidth unreserved.
B. LSPs can reserve an additional 9.9 Gbps bandwidth on this RSVP interface.
C. The head end reserves 100Mbps for the LSP
D. The egress RSVP interface has 1 Gbps bandwidth unreserved.
Answer: D

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NO.4 During node protection signaling, the PLR knows the address of the MP from which of the following
methods?
A. The PLR issues a RSVP path message to the destination router to request the address of the MP.
B. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the ERO.
C. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the RRO
D. The PLR learns the address of the MP from the targeted RSVP hello message.
E. The PLR does not need to know the address of the MP.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements best describes downstream unsolicited label distribution?
A. An LER may answer requests for label mappings immediately, without waiting for a label mapping from
the next-hop.
B. An LER may advertise label mappings to all peers for which it might be a next-hop for a given FEC.
C. An LER propagates a label mapping downstream for a FEC. only if it has a label mapping for the FEC
next-hop.
D. An LER will only distribute a label for a FEC when it has been requested to do so.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the output below, which of the following statements are true? (Choose three)
A. A packet arriving with label 131066 and destined for prefix 10.10.10.243/32 will be forwarded out
interface 1/1/4, with label 131070.
B. LDP ECMP is enabled.
C. The router ¯ s sys t e m add r ess i s 10 . 10 . 10 . 242 / 32 .
D. There are multiple LSPs to reach FEC 10.10.10.244/32.
E. The router cannot receive any unlabeled packets destined for prefix 10.10.10 223/32.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 You wish to advertise LDP labels for all local networks; which is the most effective policy statement to
use?
A. from prefix-list direct
B. match local
C. from protocol direct
D. match protocol direct
E. from protocol local
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements regarding LSP path configuration are true? (Choose three)
A. The path must include at least one hop.
B. The path may be used multiple times in a single LSP.
C. The path may comprise loose hop entries only.
D. The path must define the LSP's tail end.
E. The path may be used for multiple LSPs.
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 Click on the exhibit button below.
Assuming that LSP R1-R2-R3 requests the default fast reroute configuration, which router becomes a
DMP for the detour tunnels?
A. Router R1
B. Router R2
C. Router R3
D. Router R4
E. Router R5
Answer: E

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NO.10 Click on the exhibit button below.
With fast reroute enabled, and given the following:
-The protected LSP path is R1-R2-R3.
-All links are of equal cost.
Which of the following statements is true? (Choose two)
A. Router R1 is the LSP originator and is also a PLR.
B. With one-to-one link or node protection, the detour LSP path is R1-R4-R5-R2-R3.
C. With one-to-one link or node protection, the detour LSP path is R1-R4-R5-R3.
D. If the R2-R3 link fails, router R3 becomes a PLR
E. None of the nodes can be protected with FRR.
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 Which of the following message types does RSVP use to set up an LSP? (Choose two)
A. Path message
B. iLER message
C. Resv message
D. LSP setup call request
E. eLER message
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Click on the exhibit button below.
With fast reroute enabled, and given the following:
-Two protected LSPs with the path R1-R2-R3
-Both LSPs enable facility bypass and link protection.
When router R1 is the PLR, which router becomes the MP?
A. Router R1
B. Router R2
C. Router R3
D. Router R4
E. Router R5
Answer: B

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NO.13 Click on the exhibit button below.
Consider the following:
-Routers R1 and R4 are in Area 1.
-Routers R4 and R5 in Area 0.
-Routers R5 and R3 are in Area 2.
To support LDP-over-RSVP tunnels between routers R1 and R3 over path R1-R4-R5-R3, with which
routers will router R5 require targeted sessions? (Choose two)
A. Router R1
B. Router R4
C. Router R2
D. Router R3
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Which of the following statements best describe MPLS fast reroute characteristics? (Choose two)
A. Fast reroute requires you to manually define detour paths.
B. Fast reroute provides path protection close to the failure point
C. Fast reroute performs automatic path calculation and signaling.
D. Fast reroute protects both primary and secondary paths.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Which command can be used to verify the LDP settings for label distribution and retention?
A. show router ldp default
B. show router ldp parameters
C. show router ldp settings
D. show router mpls settings
E. show router mpls label-options
Answer: B

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-103   4A0-103   4A0-103

NO.16 Which of the following is defined by the following statement? All label mappings received from all peer
LSRs are saved.
A. Conservative label retention
B. Liberal label retention.
C. Downstream on demand.
D. Downstream unsolicited.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the configuration below, what is the system ID of the destination node?
A. 10.32.1.2
B. 10.1.478
C. 1048.1.1
D. Cannot tell from this configuration
E. 10.1.2.2
Answer: B

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NO.18 In MPLS, labels are distributed in the opposite direction of the data flow.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the significance of receiving a packet with the bottom MPLS label S bit set to 1?
A. It results in forwarding based on the next packet header.
B. It indicates that the label is the bottom of the MPLS label stack.
C. It indicates that the label is the top of the MPLS label stack.
D. Any LSR that receives an S bit set to 1 must discard the packet.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Assume that, on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, an LSP is configured with one-to-one FRR and node
protection. Which of the following statements are FALSE? (Choose two)
A. Each PLR signals a detour LSP that avoids the downstream node. If the downstream node cannot be
avoided, a detour LSP that avoids the downstream link is signaled.
B. The detour LSP can take one or more hops before merging back on the protected LSP.
C. The merge point of the protected LSP must be the next-next-hop node
D. The ingress router will set the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object of the path
message to inform all routers along the protected LSP path to establish detour LSPs.
E. The label recording desired flag must be set in the session attribute object in order for the PLR to know
what label to swap when using the detour LSP.
Answer: C,E

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-M01
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent IP/MPLS Mobile Backhaul Transport)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 Click on the exhibit.
Given the show command results shown:
Which IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 parent clock value does the slave first consider
when choosing its master?
A. GM Clock Priority1
B. GM Clock ID
C. GM Clock Priority2
D. GM Clock Class
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click on the exhibit.
Given the configuration shown and the following conditions:
* The external reference is offline
* Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - EEC1
* Reference 2 receives QL - SSU-A
Which quality level will the SAR router advertise to its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) peers?
A. QL-DNU
B. QL-EEC1
C. QL-SSU-A
D. QL-PRC
E. QL-UNC
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which is a characteristic of the IEEE 802.3 Slow Protocol?
A. There are a maximum of 10 frames transmitted per second
B. There are a maximum of 20 slow protocol subtypes per interface
C. The maximum slow protocol frame size is 64 bytes
D. The slow protocol header carries the clock quality level
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click on the exhibit.
Consider the topology and MLS1 configuration shown, and given the following conditions:
-MLS1 delivers the PRC traceable clock to the network
-Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - ST3
-Reference 2 receives QL - DUS
-BITS sets QL-STU
Which quality level will MLS1 deliver to POC2-1 on its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) port 1/2/7?
A. QL-EEC2
B. QL-PRS
C. QL-ST3
D. QL-STU
Answer: C

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NO.5 If an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 slave times out announce messages with the
master, to which state does the slave port transition to choose another potential master?
A. Initial
B. Listening
C. Passive
D. Un-calibrated
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which synchronization technique supports time of day and phase synchronization?
A. IEEE 1588 v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)v2
B. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
C. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) line timing
D. Synchronization Ethernet (SyncE)/Synchronization Status Message (SSM)
Answer: A

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NO.7 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which payload type set in a SDH-framed OC-12 port creates individual E1
containers?
A. Virtual Tributary (VT) 1.5
B. VT2
C. Virtual Container (VC)-11
D. VC-12
Answer: B

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NO.8 The IETF is know for which standardization effort.?
A. It develops recommendations for core network functionality, broadband service delivery and next
generation services
B. It maintains Requests for Comment (RFC) that describe technical solutions to Internet challenges
C. It creates single, integrated network design guidelines to support mobile broadband services
D. It develops radio access services and systems for high capacity mobile networks
Answer: B

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-M01   4A0-M01   4A0-M01

NO.9 Click on the exhibit.
Given the show command results shown:
With what IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 message did the slave node set the Unicast
message rates used by the master?
A. Announce granted
B. Announce request
C. Sync granted
D. Sync request
Answer: B

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NO.10 Click on the exhibit.
Consider the topology and MLS1 configuration shown, and given the following conditions:
* MLS1 delivers the PRC traceable clock to the network
* Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - EEC1
* Reference 2 receives QL - SSU-A
* BITS sets QL-SSU-B
Which quality level will MLS1 deliver to POC2-1 on its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) port 1/2/7?
A. QL-EEC1
B. QL-PRC
C. QL-SSU-A
D. QL-STU
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which timing technique can deliver time of day and phase synchronization information to the base
station without concern for Packet Delay Variation (PDV)?
A. Building Integrated Timing Supply (BITS)
B. Global Positioning System (GPS)
C. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
D. IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)
Answer: B

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NO.12 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following:
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots.
The command result illustrates which circuit status?
A. The E1 channel group is administratively turned down
B. The DS1 circuit physical link is operationally down
C. The IMA bundle has no operational member links
D. The associated Layer 3 interface is operationallydown
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which statement best describes adaptive timing techniques?
A. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from time stamped packets
B. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from the arriving packet rate
C. Adaptive timing only supports frequency synchronization
D. Adaptive timing only operates on point-to-point links
Answer: A

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NO.14 When researching carrier-class Ethernet standards to support the mobile backhaul Ethernet transport,
which standards body would you consult?
A. IEEE
B. MEF
C. ITU-T
D. NGMN
Answer: B

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NO.15 Click on the exhibit.
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots
The command result illustrates which OC-3 port characteristic?
A. On STS1-1,the second VT1.5 in the second VTG is set for IPCP encapsulation
B. On STS1-1,the second DS1 channel group in the second VTG isoperationallyup
C. On STS1-1, the second E1 channel group in the second TUG-2 is operationally up
D. On STS1-1, the second VT2 in the second TUG-2 is set for IPCP encapsulation
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which statement correctly describes the Point-to-Point (PPP) Multilink Protocol (MP) negotiation
process?
A. At least one link must complete Link Control Protocol (LCP) negotiations before the bundle can
initialize
B. The endpoints indicate their desire to implement MP in the link Network Control Protocol (NCP) phase
C. The bundle must complete LCP negotiations before it can enter the NCP negotiation phase
D. Internet Protocol-Control Protocol (IPCP) negotiations must succeed for the bundle links to initialize
Answer: A

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NO.17 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which command creates the OC-3 path's Administrative Unit (AU)-4 Virtual
Container (VC) capacity?
A. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path au-4
B. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path sts3
C. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path tug-3
D. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path vc-4
Answer: B

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NO.18 An SROS router obtains its timing exclusively from its BITS input port. The router sets Quality Level
(QL) SONET Traceability Unknown (STU) on this Superframe (SF) framed DS1 BITS reference.
What must you configure on this master router to pass the best clock quality level to the downstream
Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) slave nodes while maintaining traceability to the DS1 source?
A. Enable "ql-override prs" on the BITS reference
B. Enable "ql-override prs" on the master's SyncE ports
C. Enable "ql-selection prs" on the BITS reference
D. Set the master router to choose its source by quality level
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which messages, periodically sent between an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 master
and slave, serve as hellos to help the slave choose the best available master?
A. Announce
B. Announce_grant
C. Sync
D. Delay_response
Answer: A

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NO.20 Click on the exhibit.
The command result indicates which condition on the Inverse Multiplexing over ATM (IMA) bundle?
A. The number of active links has dropped belowthe minimum threshold
B. The associated Layer 3 interface is administratively down
C. The remote IMA bundle is administrativelydown
D. The parent OC-3 is operationally down
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-108
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multicast Protocols)
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the range of addresses allocated for SSM?:
A.239.0.0.0/8
B.233.x.y.0/24
C.224.0.0.0/24
D.232.0.0.0/8
Answer:D

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NO.2 The OUI field of the MAC address for IP multicast frames is:
A.00-01-5e
B.01-01-53
C.01-01-5e
D.01-00-5e
E.01-00-53
Answer:D

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NO.3 How many bits of the IP multicast address are copied directly to the multicast MAC address?
A.27
B.5
C.28
D.9
E.23
Answer:E

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NO.4 Which MAC address will multicast address 224.128.0.1 translate to?
A.01-00-5e-80-00-01
B.01-00-5e-22-41-40
C.01-00-5e-22-28-01
D.00-01-5e-80-00-01
E.01-00-5e-00-00-01
F.01-01-5e-22-28-01
Answer:E

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NO.5 Which of the following are characteristics of the one to many model of multicast data delivery?
(Choose two)
A.Receivers are generally unknown by the source
B.Well suited for applications in which the receivers provide feedback to each other and the source
C.There is a single data flow, from the source to the receivers
D.All devices are potentially capable of generating multicast data
E.Receivers are generally known by each other since any receiver may be a source
Answer:A C

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NO.6 Which two of the following addresses should not be used in a multicast network at the same
time?
A.233.44.12.35
B.234.45.12.35
C.235.46.12.35
D.236.174.12.35
E.237.171.12.35
Answer:C D

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NO.7 Which MAC address will the IP multicast address 239.33.42.107 translate to?
A.01-00-5e-a1-2a-6b
B.01-00-5e-21-2a-6b
C.01-00-5e-21-2c-6c
D.00-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
E.00-01-5e-21-2a-6b
F.01-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
Answer:B

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NO.8 The use of PIM as a multicast routing protocol provides for which one of the following services?
A.Authentication
B.Guaranteed Delivery
C.Device Security
D.Preventing packet forwarding loops
E.Preventing Denial of Service attacks
Answer:D

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NO.9 An end station receiving a broadcast packet will always process the data up to which layer of
the OSI stack?
A.Layer 1
B.Layer 2
C.Layer 3
D.Layer 4
E.Layer 7
Answer:C

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NO.10 Choose the answer that best completes the statement: An end station on an Ethernet network
receiving an IP multicast packet will:
A.Determine at Layer 1 if it is interested in the frame
B.Determine at Layer 2 if it is interested in the frame
C.Determine at Layer 2 after reading the protocol ID field if it is interested in the frame
D.Determine at Layer 3 if it is interested in the frame
E.Determine at Layer 7 if it is interested in the frame
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-101
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Interior Routing Protocols and High Availability)
Questions et réponses: 177 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three
answers.
A. Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.
B. Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.
C. An adjacency database is maintained by each router.
D. The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.
E. The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.2 There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the "configure
router static-route 10.2.3.0/ 24 next-hop 10.1.2.1" command. What is the correct traceroute
command to test this static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. traceroute 10.2.3.1
B. traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1
D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
E. traceroute 10.1.2.1
Answer: A

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15. What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: B

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16. Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true? (Choose
two answers).
A. RIPvl, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.
C. Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted
beyond the immediate neighbor.
D. Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.
E. Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant
routers and how they interconnect
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What causes an adjacency to change from down to two ways?
A. When a link state update is received in response to a link state request.
B. When a router receives a Hello packet that contains its own router ID in the neighbor list from a
neighbor.
C. When a router receives a database description packet from a neighbor.
D. When a link state acknowledgement is received in response to a link state update.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click the exhibit button.
What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach
the network behind router R2?
A. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/ 24 next-hop 138.120.199.2
B. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/ 24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
C. configure router static-route 138.120.199.2 / 24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
D. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/ 24 next-hop 139.120.121.2
Answer: A

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NO.5 Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many
connected networks, and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the
following best describes the likely configuration?
A. The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more
specific static route.
B. The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.
C. The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.
D. The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office
router will have a default route.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In an IP datagram, which of the following fields identifies the receiving application?
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header.
B. The port field of the transport layer header.
C. The protocol field of the network layer header.
D. The port field of the network layer address.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements describe the major features of OSPF? Choose two answers.
A. Fast reroute capability
B. Control traffic prioritization
C. Route redistribution
D. Traffic engineering extensions
E. Cut through forwarding
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Click the exhibit button.
Routers R1, R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router
R1 advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router
R3's routing table?
A. Router R3's routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.
B. Router R3's routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/ 24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/ 24.
C. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/ 8 in router R3's routing table.
D. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/ 24 in router R3's route table.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are the default Hello and Dead timer intervals for OSPF on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 5 and 15 seconds
B. 10 and 30 seconds
C. 5 and 20 seconds
D. 10 and 40 seconds
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the exhibit button.
A static route is created on router R1, using the "static-route 0.0.0.0/ 0 next-hop 10.3.3.2"
command. What command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. ping static 10.5.5.5
B. ping static 0.0.0.0/ 0
C. ping 10.5.5.5
D. ping 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following commands can be used to display the number of SPF computations
that have been performed on a router?
A. show router ospf area <area-id>
B. show router ospf neighbor
C. show router ospf interface
D. show router ospf status
Answer: A

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NO.12 Click the exhibit button.
What triggers convergence of the routing protocol when the link between switch 1 and switch 2
goes down?
A. Convergence is triggered when the adjacency between routers R1 and R2 drops as a result of
Hello timeouts. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send
updates to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have
converged.
B. Convergence is triggered when the physical interfaces between routers R1 and R2 go down. At
this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their
adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
C. Convergence will not be triggered because switches cannot run routing protocols between them.
D. Convergence is triggered when the switches notify the routers about the link state information.
At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their
adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged
E. Convergence is triggered when an LSA is sent from router R1 to router R2 to indicate that the link
is down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and sendupdates
to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming
that there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation
is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
B. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
C. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA
that is flooded to area 2.
Answer: D

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NO.14 When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the
destination IP address, what actions are performed by the router?
A. The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.
B. The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.
C. The packet is silently discarded.
D. The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-M02
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Mobile Gateways for the LTE Evolved Packet Core )
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 An Alcatel-Lucent SGW is only connected to an Alcatel-Lucent PGW. Based on the information shown
in the exhibit, how many GTP-C tunnels are established between the SGW and the PGW?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE paging process?
A. The SGW performs downlink data buffering while the S1 bearer is being established.
B. The SGW initiates the paging messages towards the UE.
C. The PGW is not aware of the paging process.
D. The UE initiates the service request procedure once it receives the paging message.
E. The paging procedure is controlled by the MME.
Answer: B

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NO.3 There is an active GTP path between an Alcatel-Lucent SGW and an Alcatel-Lucent PGW, On the
SGW. Which of the following CLI commands is used to check the "Restart Count" value of the PGW?
A. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-peers s5
B. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-stats s5
C. show mobile-gateway serving bearer-stats s5
D. show mobile-gateway serving path-mgmt-stats s5
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the eNodeB?
A. The eNodeBs maybeinterconnectTEIDwith each other via anX2 interface.
B. The eNodeB is an element of the EPC core.
C. The eNodeBs areconnectedto the EPC core via the S1 interface.
D. During an IMSI attach, the eNodeB selects an MME to service the UE.
E. The eNodeB performs the compression and encryption of the user data stream.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Diameter protocol?
A. The Diameter is a peer-to-peer protocol that uses the TCP or SCTP as the transport protocol.
B. A Diameter peer could act as a Diameter client or a Diameter server to its remote peer.
C. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW acts as a Diameter client to the PCRF server via the Gx interface.
D. The Diameter protocol uses TCP and SCTP port number 3868.
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following interfaces is not using the GTP-C protocol?
A. The X2 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S4 interface.
D. The S5 interface.
E. The SGi interface.
Answer: E

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NO.7 The S5 is the interface used for the communication between the SGW and the PGW. Which of the
following transport protocols is used by this interface?
A. GTP/TCP
B. GTP/UDP
C. GTP/IP
D. GTP/SCTP
E. None of the above answers are correct
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the EPS bearers?
A. The default bearer isinitiatedby either the UE or the PCRF.
B. The default bearer is always the first bearer established to an APN.
C. An AF server may initiate adedicatedbearer to a UE.
D. EPS bearers that connect a given UE to a single PGW may use different IP subnets.
E. The default bearer remains active throughout the lifetime of the APN connection.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following most accurately identifies a GTP tunnel on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 MG by
default?
A. ATEID
B. The System IP address
C. A UDP port number
D. ATEIDand the System IP address
E. ATEID, the System IP address and a UDP port number
Answer: E

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NO.10 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the MME?
A. The MME selects the SGW and the PGW for a given UE.
B. The MME is responsible for the bearer management.
C. The MME communicates with both the E-UTRAN and the EPC via GTP-C tunnels.
D. The MME performs the user authentication and authorization using the information provided by the
HSS
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Tracking Area (TA)?
A. A TA is a set of eNodeBs that are defined by a UE itself.
B. A TA is the smallest geographical area in which a UE can roam without performing a Tracking Area
Update (TAU) other than periodic TAU as required.
C. A Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is used to identify each tracking area.
D. The Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is assigned by the service provider.
E. One TA may be served by one or more than one MME.
Answer: A

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NO.12 In a 3G network, which of the following is used to build a PDP context between a UE and the GGSN
when a direct tunnel is not used?
A. An end-to-end GTP tunnel between the UE and the GGSN.
B. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the NodeB and a GTP tunnel between the NodeB and the
GGSN.
C. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN and a GTP tunnel between the SGSN and the
GGSN.
D. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN.
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following LTE interfaces are used for the communication of user data? (Choose one best
answer)
A. The S1-MME interface and the S11 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S5 interface.
D. The S1-U interface, the S5 interface and the LTE-Uu interface.
E. Only answers A, B and C are correct.
F. Only answers B and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE network attachment procedure?
A. The UE is served by an eNodeB.
B. The eNodeB selects one MME to serve the UE.
C. The MME selects one SGW to serve the UE.
D. The SGW selects one PGW to serve the UE
E. The PGW selects one PCRF server if required.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following most accurately describes the messages used to manage a Diameter
connection path?
A. The Capabilities-Exchange message
B. The Device-Watchdog message
C. The Credit-Control message
D. The Disconnect-Peer message
E. All of the above answers are correct
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct
Answer: F

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NO.16 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, when the SGW receives an IP packet from the UE,
which of the following is the GTP TEID value expected to be received in the GTP packet header?
A. 0xd05025
B. 0x4b00805
C. 0x21
D. 0x4b00825
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the IP connectivity between a UE and a PDN?
A. A UE gets an IPv4 address and/or an IPv6 prefix per APN.
B. A PGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PDN based on the address of the PDN server.
C. When a UE sends an IP packet to a PDN over the EPC core, the eNodeB forwards
theencapsulatedpacket to the SGW by looking into its IP routing table to determine how to reach the PDN
server.
D. The SGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PGW based on the address of the PDN server.
E. Only answers C and D are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.18 A UE needs to get an IP address before it can communicate to any PDN over the LTE network. Which of
the following statements are FALSE regarding the process of the IP address allocation? (Choose two)
A. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
B. A PGW may assign the IP address from its local address pools.
C. An SGW may obtain a static IP address from the HSS server and assign it to the UE.
D. An SGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
E. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and assign it to the UE.
Answer: C,D

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-M02   4A0-M02   4A0-M02

NO.19 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the S1-MME interface?
A. It is the control plane interface between the E-UTRAN and the MME.
B. It is used to signal the TEIDs for the S1 bearers between the eNodeB and the SGW.
C. The eNodeB receives the Paging messages over the S1-MME interface.
D. It is used for the management of the Radio Access Bearers.
E. It is based on the IP/UDP protocols.
Answer: E

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NO.20 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, which of the following is the PLMN ID?
A. 302
B. 720
C. 123456789
D. 9876543
E. 30201613
F. 302720
Answer: F

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-107
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Quality of Service)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the exhibit button below.
Based on the configuration shown below, name the forwarding class to be associated with a TCP packet
encapsulated inside an Ethernet frame that arrives on SAP 1/1/5 with the following characteristics:
Destination IP address = 120.110.1.1
TCP port number = 23
DSCP value = nc1
Dot1pvalue = 3
A. H2
B. NC
C. L2
D. EF
E. H1
F. BE
Answer: C

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-107   4A0-107   4A0-107 examen

NO.2 Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS.?
A. Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss
B. Latency, FIFO, WRED
C. Delay, jitter, packet loss
D. SNR, queue depth, latency
E. Attenuation, dispersion, latency
Answer: C

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-107   4A0-107

NO.3 How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 6
D. 4
E. 3
Answer: C

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NO.4 The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant
(first) bits define precedence.
A. 8, 6, 3
B. 8, 8, 6
C. 16, 8, 4
D. 8, 6, 4
E. 24, 16, 8
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the
Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)
A. The EXP bits in the MPLS header.
B. The packet's source and destination IP addresses.
C. The packet's DSCP bits.
D. The dot1p bits in the frame header.
E. The ID of an SDP that is transporting the packet.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)
A. DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.
B. DSCP is a 6-bit field.
C. DSCP specifies eight different priorities.
D. DSCP specifies four precedence levels.
E. DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header
F. DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.
Answer: A,B

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-107   4A0-107 examen   4A0-107

NO.7 What is the maximum number of SAP-ingress policies that can be applied on a SAP?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 8
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following can be used as classifiers of customer traffic? (Choose three)
A. DSCP value
B. 802.1p value
C. IP DF bit
D. TCP/UDP port numbers
E. HTML version number
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 Which of the following are characteristics of 802.1p? (Choose two)
A. 802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 2 header,
B. 802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 3 header.
C. 802.1p specifies 64 different priority levels.
D. 802.1p uses a field in the 802.1Q header.
E. 802.1p uses a field in the Layer 3 IP header
F. 802.1p defines a 3-bit Class of Service field.
Answer: D,F

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-107   4A0-107   4A0-107 examen

NO.10 Which of the following are major components of QoS functionality on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
(Choose three)
A. Microflow reservations using RSVP
B. DSCP to EXP translation
C. Traffic classification
D. Automatic profiling and policy configuration
E. Buffer memory management
F. Traffic scheduling
Answer: C,E,F

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-107   certification 4A0-107   4A0-107

NO.11 Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.
B. The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.
C. The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.
D. To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.
E. DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?
A. 010011
B. 100010
C. 010001
D. 001100
E. 010010
Answer: E

Alcatel-Lucent examen   4A0-107   4A0-107

NO.13 Individual application streams are considered microflows, whereas __________ are considered
macroflows.
A. SAPs
B. SDPs
C. Services
D. Queues
E. Schedulers
F. Forwarding classes
Answer: F

Alcatel-Lucent   certification 4A0-107   4A0-107   4A0-107 examen

NO.14 Which of the following BEST describes a SAP when regarding QoS?
A. A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its
own queue.
B. A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.
C. A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.
D. A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing
functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).
E. A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on
forwarding class.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is an SLA? (Choose two)
A. An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter
across a provider's network.
B. An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer
traffic across the provider's network.
C. An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider's network by prioritizing their
traffic over others as desired.
D. An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement
within the provider's network.
E. An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing
them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider's network.
Answer: B,D

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